Boost Your Skills: 140+ Project Management MCQs for BCA & MCA MUJ TEE


Welcome to your ultimate practice guide for project management! This comprehensive collection of over 140 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) is specifically designed to help BCA and MCA students master core concepts, terminology, and principles. 

Project Management

Whether you're preparing for university exams, professional certifications, or technical interviews, these questions will sharpen your understanding of topics like the project lifecycle, cost estimation, risk management, and scheduling. Dive in and test your knowledge to ensure you're fully prepared for academic and career success.

140 multiple-choice questions and answers on Project Management

  1. _____________ must plan, motivate, organize, and control the practitioners who do software work.
    • Project Managers
    • Senior Managers
    • Customers
    • End Users
  2. The realistic percentage for striving to work in Software Project Development is _________.
    • 40%
    • 80%
    • 50%
    • 100%
  3. ___________ defines testing procedures and certification processes.
    • Software Support
    • Software Development
    • Software Management
    • Software Testing
  4. _____________ Organizations take the networked structure one step further by combining IT with traditional components to form new types of components.
    • Hierarchical
    • Flat
    • T-form (Technology-based)
    • Matrix
  5. Wheelwright and Clark define a continuum of organizational structures between two extremes, _________, and ________ organizations.
    • Functional, Project
    • Functional, Process
    • Project, Process
    • Project, Program
  6. Effective software project management focuses on four P’s – People, Process, Product, and Project.
    • True
    • False
  7. In ___________ organizations, work is organized into small work groups and integrated regionally and nationally/globally.
    • Matrix
    • Logistics
    • Both a) and b)
    • None of the above
  8. In flat-structured organizations, work is more flexible, and employees do whatever is needed.
    • True
    • False
  9. Team Leader is responsible for all aspects of the project.
    • True
    • False
  10. __________ manages hardware/software requirements for development, testing, validation, and production environments.
    • Logistics
    • Matrix
    • Both a) and b)
    • None of the above
  11. Conducting structured meetings is a form of ___________ communication.
    • Formal
    • Informal
    • Both a) and b)
    • None of the above
  12. ___________do not highlight inter-task dependencies.
    • Gantt charts
    • PERT charts
    • Both a) and b)
    • None of the above
  13. Two general notations used for scheduling are _______charts and _______charts.
    • Waterfall, Gantt
    • Waterfall, Pert
    • Gan, PERT
    • PERT, Gantt
  14. A semiformal way of breaking down the goal is called the -.
    • Work Breakdown Structure
    • Task Breakdown Structure
    • Work Part Structure
    • Work Breakdown System
  15. PERT stands for -.
    • Process Evaluation and Review Technique
    • Program Evaluation and Review Techniques
    • Program Evaluation and Review Technique
    • Process Evaluation and Review Techniques
  16. Most life cycle models can be derived as special cases of the -.
    • Pert chart
    • Waterfall Model
    • Incremental model
    • Spiral model
  17. Most life cycle models can be derived as special cases of the -.
    • Pert chart
    • Waterfall Model
    • Incremental model
    • Spiral model
  18. Project scope, pros and cons are discussed in the initiation phase of software development -.
    • True
    • False
  19. CMM stands for -.
    • Capability Maturity Model
    • Capacity Maturity Model
    • Customer Maturity Model
    • Common Maturity Model
  20. Testing and Module Integration strategies are addressed in the - phase.
    • Initiation
    • Implementation
    • Planning and Design
    • Maintenance
  21. The purpose of a - is to detail the work requirements for projects and programs that have deliverables and/or services performed.
    • Statement of Workflow (SoW)
    • System of Work (SoW)
    • Semantic of Work (SoW)
    • Semantic of Work (SoW)
  22. encompasses e-mail, or electronic dashboards, or video conferencing systems.
    • Formal communication
    • Electronic communication
    • Informal communication
    • Interpersonal networking
  23. IAPPM stands for -.
    • International Association of Project and Program Management
    • International Association of Project and Planning Management
    • International Association of Process and Program Management
    • International Association of Program and Project Management
  24. The - stage determines the nature and scope of the development.
    • First
    • Last
    • Middle
    • Initiation
  25. Project Management is the application of knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.
    • True
    • False
  26. The three most important factors that influence project management are.
    • Time, Cost, Scope
    • Time, Cost, People
    • Time, Scope, People
    • Cost, People, Quality
  27. Interoperability has become a key characteristic of many systems.
    • True
    • False

28. "Work expands to fill the available volume" is ________ principle.

  • Parkinson's
  • James's
  • John's
  • None of the above

29. In ________ mode, the project is characterized by tight, stringent constraints and interface requirements.

  • Organic
  • Embedded
  • Semidetached
  • None of the above

30. ROI stands for ________.

  • Return Of Investment
  • Return On Investigation
  • Return On Investment
  • Review On Investment

31. Cost in a project includes software, hardware, and human resources.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

32. Most cost estimates are determined in terms of ________.

  • Person-Months (PM)
  • Net Present Value (NPV)
  • Both a) and b)
  • None of the above

33. COCOMO model was developed by Parkinson.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

34. Budgeting in a business sense is the planned allocation of available funds to each department within a company.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

35. ________ is a standard method for the financial appraisal of long-term projects.

  • Net Present Value (NPV)
  • Gross Value (GV)
  • Profit Value (PV)
  • None of the above

36. A number of methods have been used to estimate software costs, such as:

  • Algorithmic Models
  • Expert Judgment
  • Analogy Estimation
  • All of the above

37. The Budgeting of a company means the planned allocation of available funds and resources in each department of that company.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

38. The three most important factors that influence project management are:

  • Time, Cost, Scope
  • Time, Cost, People
  • Time, Scope, People
  • Cost, People, Quality

39. _______________ in an event indicates ahead of schedule.

  • Positive slack (+)
  • Negative slack (–)
  • Zero slack
  • None of the above

40. Accelerating the project schedule is often termed as _______________ of the schedule.

  • Breaking
  • Crashing
  • Speeding
  • None of the above

41. A schedule provides the idea about the start and finish dates of key activities or terminal elements of the project.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

42. Booz Allen Hamilton, Inc. has developed Gantt chart.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

43. _______________, _______________, _______________, are examples of automated scheduling tools.

  • Microsoft Project, ABT's Project Workbench for Windows, Symantec's Timeline
  • Microsoft Project, ABC's Project Workbench for Windows, Symantec's Timeline
  • IBM Project, ABT's Project Workbench for Windows, Symantec's Timeline
  • None of the above

44. Scheduling can be resource scheduling, time scheduling and development scheduling.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

45. Gantt chart is derived automatically from the -------------.

  • Pert Chart
  • Waterfall Model
  • Incremental Model
  • None of the above

46. Basecamp is a well-known project management and team collaboration platform that facilitates efficient communication and organisation within a team.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

47. Zoho Projects is one of the best-known tools for simple project management that can help teams streamline their upcoming work and tasks.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

48. Scheduling is an essential activity for the development of the software project.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

39. _______________ in an event indicates ahead of schedule.

  • Positive slack (+)
  • Negative slack (–)
  • Zero slack
  • None of the above

40. Accelerating the project schedule is often termed as _______________ of the schedule.

  • Breaking
  • Crashing
  • Speeding
  • None of the above

41. A schedule provides the idea about the start and finish dates of key activities or terminal elements of the project.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

42. Booz Allen Hamilton, Inc. has developed Gantt chart.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

43. _______________, _______________, _______________, are examples of automated scheduling tools.

  • Microsoft Project, ABT's Project Workbench for Windows, Symantec's Timeline
  • Microsoft Project, ABC's Project Workbench for Windows, Symantec's Timeline
  • IBM Project, ABT's Project Workbench for Windows, Symantec's Timeline
  • None of the above

44. Scheduling can be resource scheduling, time scheduling and development scheduling.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

45. Gantt chart is derived automatically from the -------------.

  • Pert Chart
  • Incremental Model
  • None of the above

46. Basecamp is a well-known project management and team collaboration platform that facilitates efficient communication and organisation within a team.

  • Waterfall Model
  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

47. Zoho Projects is one of the best-known tools for simple project management that can help teams streamline their upcoming work and tasks.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

48. Scheduling is an essential activity for the development of the software project.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

49. A _______________ is a discrepancy between how a requirement was mentioned and how the same requirement is implemented.

  • Change
  • Risk
  • Defect
  • None of the above

50. ACAT stands for _______________.

  • Avoid, Communication, Accept or Transfer
  • Avoid, Control, Accept or Transport
  • Accept, Control, Accept or Transfer
  • Avoid, Control, Accept or Transfer

51. _______________ is a software package used for preparing earned value analysis.

  • MS Project
  • Primavera
  • Lotus Notes
  • None of the above

52. Six Sigma is a registered service mark and trademark of ___________.

  • Microsoft
  • Sun Microsystems
  • Motorola
  • None of the above

53. If there is a certain probability that the objectives of the project will not be achieved, this risk should not be reported to higher management.

  • TRUE
  • FALSE
  • 0
  • 0

54. When there are disagreements between the project lead and overall project manager, the same can be resolved through ______________.

  • Change control board
  • Six Sigma
  • Both a) and b)
  • None of the above

55. Tom DeMarco stated, “You can’t control what you can't measure”.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

56. _______________ is the statistics gathered over the course of the execution of the project.

  • Software Metric
  • Logistics
  • Both a) and b)
  • None of the above

57. Status meetings and status reporting are required for a medium size project.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

58. _______________ is a set of practices originally developed by Motorola to systematically improve processes by eliminating defects.

  • Six Sigma
  • Four Sigma
  • Eight Sigma
  • None of the above

59. _______________ can take place at any time during the project, though the sooner the better.

  • Risk assessment
  • Risk management planning
  • Risk resolution
  • Risk prioritization

60. The risk associated with the degree of uncertainty that the product will meet its requirements and be fit for its intended use is a _______________.

  • Cost risk
  • Performance risk
  • Support risk
  • Schedule risk

61. Risk is the combination of both the possibility of occurrence of adverse event and the impact of such bad event.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

62. _______________ involves activities like typical strategies, processes, techniques, and tools involved in containing the adverse impacts of risks on the software project.

  • Software risk management
  • Software process management
  • Software Configuration management
  • None of the above

63. Project risks are those risks that could result in project slippage, budget constraints related issues, and resource and customer requirement related issues.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

64. _______________ threaten the applicability of the software product being built.

  • Business risk
  • Software risk
  • Both a) and b)
  • None of the above

65. ACAT stands for _______________.

  • Avoid, Control, Accept or Transfer
  • Avoidance, Control, Accept or Transfer
  • Avoid, Control, Acceptance or Transfer
  • None of the above

66. The risk associated with the degree of uncertainty that the project schedule will be maintained and that the product will be delivered on time is a schedule risk.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

67. The risk associated with the degree of uncertainty that the result software will be easy to correct, adapt and enhance is a_______________

  • Support risk
  • Software risk
  • Hardware risk
  • None of the above

68. The Risk is indications of occurrence of a loss.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

69. Software Configuration Management (SCM) is an umbrella activity that is applied throughout the software process.

  • TRUE
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

70. A _______________ becomes the basis to further elaboration of Project plan and the Software Requirement specification as the project progresses.

  • Scope and Vision document
  • Scope and Objective document
  • Scope and Version document
  • None of the above

71. A _______________ has a name, attributes, and is "connected" to other objects by relationships.

  • Configuration Object
  • Risk Object
  • Configuration management
  • None of the above

72. Software configuration management is not an element of software quality assurance.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

73. Two types of objects that can be identified in configuration management are _______________ and _______________.

  • Base Objects, Aggregate Objects
  • Configuration Objects, Risk Objects
  • Derive Objects, Aggregate Objects
  • None of the above

74. _______________ combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects that are created during the software process.

  • Version Control
  • Vision control
  • Both a) and b)
  • None of the above

75. For a large software engineering project, uncontrolled change rapidly leads to chaos.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

76. The results of the evaluation are presented as a change report, which is used by a _______________.

  • Change Control Authority
  • Risk Control Authority
  • Configure Control Authority
  • None of the above

77. _______________ helps to eliminate the problems by improving communication among all people involved.

  • Status reporting
  • Class reporting
  • Feedback Status
  • None of the above

78. Version control combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects that are created during the software process.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

79. _______________ refers to the long-term management of intractable conflicts.

  • Conflict Management
  • Control management
  • Configuration Management
  • Conflict Control Management

80. _______________ is best when speed of development is the most important goal and the problem is well understood.

  • Centralized-Control
  • Centralized-Control Management
  • Control Conflicts
  • Conflicts Control

81. The aim of an organizational structure is to facilitate cooperation towards a common goal.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

82. Cutting out unnecessary requirements in the software project is called_______________.

  • Requirements Scrubbing
  • Request Scrubbing
  • Resource Scrubbing
  • None of the above

83. _______________ team organization attempts to combine the benefits of centralized and decentralized control, while minimizing or avoiding their disadvantages.

  • Mixed Control
  • Team Control
  • Both a) and b)
  • None of the above

84. Decentralized control is best when communication among engineers is necessary for achieving a good solution.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

85. The decentralized-control structure emphasizes more on team collaboration and less on hierarchical flow of the control.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

86. Centralized-control team organization can also be considered as the hierarchical structure.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

87. In decentralized approach decisions are made by consensus, and all work is considered group work.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

88. A mixed-control team organization attempts to combine the benefits of centralized and decentralized control, while minimizing or avoiding their disadvantages.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

89. _______________ is an SQA activity that ensures that appropriate steps to carry out the process are being followed.

  • Process monitoring
  • Process management
  • Product monitoring
  • Process Evaluation

90. _______________ is an SQA activity that assures standards and procedures defined for the project are followed properly and follows the compliance as stated.

  • Process evaluation
  • Product Management
  • Product evaluation
  • Product development

91. Software quality assurance (SQA) is an umbrella activity that is applied throughout the lifecycle of the project across all phases.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

92. Software Reliability is measured in Mean-Time-To-Failure (MTTF).

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

93. _______________ is defined as the ease of finding and correcting errors in the software.

  • Software maintainability
  • Product maintainability
  • System maintainability
  • None of the above

94. _______________ gives the measure of ability of software to be able exchange information with external interfaces.

  • Software interoperability
  • System interoperability
  • Product interoperability
  • None of the above

95. Standards set aside the deterministic points using which the software products can be compared with each other.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

96. SEI-CMM stands for _______________.

  • Software Engineering Institute – Capability Maturity Model
  • Software Engineering Institute – Company Maturity Model
  • Software Engineering Institutes – Capability Maturity Model
  • None of the above

97. ANSI stands for _______________.

  • American National Standards Institute
  • American National Standard Institute
  • American National Standards Institutes
  • None of the above

98. ISO stands for International Organization for Standardization that controls and develops the standards for product development.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

99. The _______________ is the heart of a CASE system.

  • Dictionary
  • Design
  • Coding
  • Repository

100. Screen painter is an example for _______________ tools.

  • Programming
  • Prototyping
  • Design
  • Analysis

101. ______________ model the processes by representing the key elements of the process.

  • Process modeling tools
  • Program modeling tools
  • Process management tools
  • Program management tools

102. SCI stands for _______________.

  • Software Configuration Items
  • System Configuration Items
  • Software Configuration Implementation
  • System Configuration Implementation

103. ___________ is a database that acts as the center for both accumulation and storage of software engineering information.

  • Technology management services
  • Tool management services
  • Tools management system
  • Tools management services

104. _______________ control the behavior of tools within the environment.

  • Software Configuration Implementation
  • Software Configuration Items
  • System Configuration Items
  • System Configuration Implements

105. The term CASE is applied to software products development that uses extensive software engineering principles and these processes are implemented either partly or majorly through the supporting software.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

106. CASE stands for _______________.

  • Computer Aided Software Engineering
  • Computer Aided System Engineering
  • Company Aided Software Engineering
  • None of the above

107. Business process engineering tools provide the basic model of the information which acts as the meta-data from which the specific information can be derived.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

108. The term integration implies both combination and closure.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

109. Software testing typically represents _______________ of a software development budget.

  • 40%
  • 20%
  • 70%
  • 90%

110. _______________ to ensure that the software will function well when the number of users is increased on the system.

  • Scalability Tools
  • Software Testing
  • Scalability Testing
  • Scalability Technology

111. _______________ technique provides logical representation of various possible operational scenarios of the application being tested.

  • Boundary Value Analysis
  • Cause-effect graphing
  • Equivalence Partitioning
  • Basis Path Testing

112. _______________ method leads to a selection of test cases that exercise boundary values.

  • Product Value Analysis
  • Boundary Analysis
  • Software Value Analysis
  • Boundary Value Analysis

113. _______________ is software metric that provides a quantitative measure of the logical complexity of a program.

  • Cyclomatic complexity
  • Product complexity
  • Cyclomatic complaint
  • Process complexity

114. Which one of the following is a Software Testing tool?

  • Rational Rose
  • Oracle
  • Win Runner
  • Linux

115. Software testing is the process of running through the application or a software product with the intention of uncovering the errors.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

116. Black Box Testing tests the internal structure of the system.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

117. White box testing is a test case design method that uses the control structure of the procedural design to derive test cases.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

118. The primary objective for test case design is to derive a set of tests that have the highest likely hood for uncovering errors in the software.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

119. In a recent study, the top 10 most expensive software errors were _______________ errors.

  • Maintenance
  • Analysis
  • Coding
  • Design

120. Most expensive software errors were Maintenance errors.

  • TRUE
  • FALSE
  • 0
  • 0

121. Around 80% of the coding of legacy application is done using _______________.

  • COBOL
  • Java
  • C
  • C++

122. _____________ is the fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business processes to achieve dramatic improvements in critical, contemporary measures of performance, such as cost, quality, service, and speed.

  • Software Engineering
  • Business Process Reengineering
  • Software Reengineering
  • Business Process Outsourcing

123. There are _______________ phases in the life-cycle of software reengineering process model.

  • Four
  • Six
  • Five
  • Seven

124. ______________ Allow legacy applications to adapt to changing requirements in quick time.

  • Reengineering
  • Engineering
  • Software monitoring
  • System Monitoring

125. _______________ for software is the process of analyzing a program in an effort to create a representation of the program at a higher level of abstraction than source code.

  • Software Engineering
  • Business Process Reengineering
  • Reverse engineering
  • Business Process Outsourcing

126. Software maintenance is the modification of a software product after delivery to correct errors, improve performance, or adapt to new requirements.

  • True
  • FALSE
  • 0
  • 0

127. Legacy application of the organization holds lot of business critical details and represents the enterprise architecture of the corporation.

  • True
  • FALSE
  • 0
  • 0

128. Reengineering of information systems is an activity that will absorb information technology resources for a short time.

  • True
  • FALSE
  • 0
  • 0

129. The data obtained during the closure analysis are used to populate the______________

  • Process Database Building (PDB)
  • Product Database
  • Process Database (PDB)
  • System Database

130. Conducting structured meetings is a form of _______________ communication.

  • Formal
  • Informal
  • Direct
  • Indirect

131. The final project closure analysis report is submitted to the ___________of the project

  • Business Manager
  • Project Manager
  • System Manager
  • Database Manager

132. For normalization purposes, the productivity of a project is measured in terms of _______________ per person-month

  • Function Process(FP)
  • System Process(SP)
  • Software Process(SP)
  • Function Points (FP)

133. RUP stands for _______________

  • Rational Unified Process (RUP)
  • Rational United Process (RUP)
  • Record United Process (RUP)
  • Rational United Program(RUP)

134. Project closure analysis is the key to learning from the past so as to provide future improvements

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

135. At Infosys, many projects use the top-down method for estimation.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

136. Lack of support from database architect and database administrator of the customer is considered as a risk.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

137. Project closure analysis is the key to learning from the past so as to provide future improvements

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0

138. The ACIC report gives some general information about the project.

  • True
  • False
  • 0
  • 0