Most Expected Polity Questions and Answers for UPSC, SSC & Competitive Exams 2025

Polity background 

1. Who is regarded as the father of Political Science? : Aristotle
2. Who is considered the first political thinker of India? : Manu
3. Which book of Manu is regarded as the first book of law in India? : Manusmriti
4. Who wrote the Arthashastra and what is its importance? : Kautilya (Chanakya); regarded as a well-known book of Indian polity.

Constitution of India

5. When was the Constitution of India adopted and when did it come into force? : Adopted on 26th November 1949, came into force on 26th January 1950.

6. What type of Republic is India according to the Constitution? :Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic with a Parliamentary system of Government.

7. How many States and Union Territories does India have at present (as per the text)? : 28 States and 8 Union Territories.

8. Who is the constitutional head of the Union Executive? : The President of India.

9. Who is the real head of the Executive in India? : The Prime Minister of India.

10. What does Article 74(1) of the Constitution provide? : There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President.

Government System

11. Who is the Head of the State and who is the Head of the Government in India? : President – Head of the State; Prime Minister – Head of the Government.

12. The Union Parliament consists of which three parts? :President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha.

13. What is the term of the Lok Sabha? : 5 years 

Evolution of Constitution

14. Which foreign Constitution influenced the Indian Constitution the most? : The Constitution of the United Kingdom (UK) Unwritten Constitution

15. Which is the lengthiest written Constitution in the world?: Constitution of India.

16. How many parts, articles, and schedules were there originally in the Indian Constitution?: 22 Parts, 395 Articles, 8 Schedules.

17. At present, how many parts, articles, and schedules are there in the Constitution?: 25 Parts, 395 Articles, 12 Schedules.

Comparative Question

18. Which country has the shortest written Constitution?: USA.

19. Which country’s Constitution is considered rigid and which is flexible?: USA – Rigid; India – Both rigid and flexible.

National Symbols & Days

20. When is Republic Day celebrated in India?: 26th January.

21. When is Independence Day celebrated in India?: 15th August.

22. When is Gandhi Jayanti celebrated?: 2nd October.

Regulating Act, 1773 - by the British PM Lord North

1. Which was the first Act passed by the British Parliament to regulate East India Company affairs in India?: Regulating Act, 1773

2. Who was nominated as the first Governor-General of Bengal under the Regulating Act, 1773? : Warren Hastings

3. Where and when was the first Supreme Court in India established?: Calcutta (1774)

4. Who was the first Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of Calcutta? : Sir Elizah Impe other 3 judge Chambers, Limenster, Hyde

Governor of Bengal nominated as Governor General & He make rule & regulations with the consent of the SC

Pitt’s India Act, 1784

5. Which Act created a dual system of control by establishing the Board of Control? : Pitt’s India Act, 1784

6. How many members were in the Board of Control under Pitt’s India Act?: 6 members

Charter Act, 1793

7. Which Act provided for the payment of salaries of the members of the Board of Control from Indian revenue?: Charter Act, 1793

Charter Act, 1813

8. Which Act ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India (except for trade in tea and with China)? : Charter Act, 1813

9. Which Act allowed Christian missionaries to preach in India : Charter Act, 1813

Charter Act, 1833

10. Which Act ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company completely (including with China)? : Charter Act, 1833

11. Who was appointed the first Law Member under the Charter Act of 1833? : Lord Macaulay

12. Which Act declared slavery illegal in India and when was it abolished? : Charter Act, 1833; abolished in 1843

The council got full powers regarding revenue as single budget for the country was prepared by the governor general & first time the governor general government was known as the Government of India and his council as the Indian council 

Charter Act, 1853

13. Which was the last Charter Act passed by the British Parliament? : Charter Act, 1853

14. Which Act introduced competitive examinations for recruitment to the Civil Services?: Charter Act, 1853

15. Which Act separated legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General’s Council & separate governor for Bengal was to be appointed?: Charter Act, 1853

Government of India Act, 1858 

It provided for absolute british imperial control over India & country was divided into provinces headed by a governor or lieutenant governor aided by his executive council.

16. Which Act transferred the powers of governance from the East India Company to the British Crown?: Government of India Act, 1858

17. What title was given to the Governor-General after the Government of India Act, 1858?: Viceroy of India

18. Who was the first Viceroy of India?: Lord Canning

19. Who was the Secretary of State for India and how many members assisted him?: A British Cabinet minister; assisted by 15 members (Council of India).

Indian Councils Act, 1861

Q1. What major body was created under the Indian Councils Act, 1861 to assist the Secretary of State for India? : The Council of India consisting of 15 members.

Q2. What power did the Indian Councils Act, 1861 give to the Governor-General regarding legislation? : The Governor-General could associate Indians with law-making by nominating them to his Legislative Council.

Q3. Which Act decentralized legislative powers of the Governor-General’s Council to Bombay and Madras? : The Indian Councils Act, 1861.

Indian Councils Act, 1892

Q4. What new power was given to the Legislative Councils under the Indian Councils Act, 1892? : The power to discuss the budget and address questions to the executive.

Q5. How were non-official members introduced into the councils under the 1892 Act? :They were to be nominated by provincial bodies like universities, district boards, municipalities, and zamindars.

Morley-Minto Reforms / Indian Councils Act, 1909

Q6. Who was the Secretary of State for India during the Indian Councils Act, 1909? : Lord Morley.

Q7. Who was the Viceroy during the Morley-Minto Reforms?: Lord Minto.

Q8. Who became the first Indian to join the Viceroy’s Executive Council under the 1909 Act: Satyendra Prasad Sinha & Appointed as the law member 

Q9. What representation was provided under the Morley-Minto Reforms? : Separate representation for communities like Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Anglo-Indians, Europeans, and for associations like universities, chambers of commerce, zamindars, etc.

Q10. Why is the 1909 Act known as the Morley-Minto Reforms?: Because it was introduced by the Secretary of State Lord Morley and the Viceroy Lord Minto.

Father of communal electorate - Lord minto & the legislative council were empowered to move resolutions on the budget & it provided for the first time for separate representation of the Muslim community.

Government of India Act, 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms)

Q11. Who formulated the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms?: Secretary of State Edwin Montagu and Viceroy Lord Chelmsford.

Q12. What new office was created under the Government of India Act, 1919 in London? : The office of High Commissioner for India.

Q13. Which Act first provided voting rights to Indian women?: The Government of India Act, 1919.

Q14. Which Prime Minister of England supported women’s franchise in India in 1919? : David Lloyd George.

Q15. Which Act recommended the establishment of a Public Service Commission?: The Government of India Act, 1919 (a Central Public Service Commission was set up in 1926).

Q16. What was the most significant constitutional feature introduced by the 1919 Act in provinces?: Dyarchy – division of subjects into ‘Transferred’ and ‘Reserved’.

Q17. Who administered the ‘Transferred’ subjects under Dyarchy?: Indian Ministers responsible to the Legislative Council.

Q18. Who administered the ‘Reserved’ subjects under Dyarchy?: The Governor and his Executive Council.

Q19. How were finances divided under the 1919 Act?: Revenues were divided into central and provincial categories, with provinces empowered to use revenue they raised.

Q20. How was the provincial budget treated after the 1919 Act?: It was separated from the central budget.

Q21. Did the Provincial Legislature get full power over finances under the 1919 Act?: No, it could only legislate on transferred subjects; central legislature retained control over the entire country’s finances.

Q22. Who had the final power to reject or reserve bills for consideration in the 1919 Act?: The Governor-General.

Government of India Act, 1935

The act divided the legislative powers between the centre and provinces.

Q1. How many sections and schedules did the Government of India Act, 1935 contain?: 321 sections and 10 schedules.

Q2. What type of political structure did the 1935 Act prescribe for India?: It prescribed an All-India Federation consisting of Provinces and Indian States.

Q3. Was the federation under the 1935 Act ever implemented?: No, the federation never came into existence because princely states did not join.

Q4. Which major territorial separation was done under this Act?: Burma (Myanmar) was separated from India.

Q5. Which new provinces were created under the 1935 Act?: Orissa and Sindh.

Q6. How were legislative powers divided under the 1935 Act?: Powers were divided into Federal List, Provincial List, and Concurrent List.

Q7. Who was the executive authority in a Province as per the 1935 Act?: The Governor, who acted on behalf of the Crown but had to work with ministers responsible to the Legislature.

Q8. In which matters could the Governor act without ministerial advice under the 1935 Act?: In special responsibilities like tribal areas, external affairs, and safeguarding minorities.

Q9. What was established under the 1935 Act for elections?: A Federal Assembly and Council of States with provisions for bicameral legislatures in provinces.

Cripps Mission, 1942

Q10. Who headed the Cripps Mission of 1942?: Sir Stafford Cripps.

Q11. Why was the Cripps Mission sent to India?: To secure Indian cooperation in World War II through constitutional proposals.

Q12. What did the Cripps Mission propose about framing a constitution?: The Constitution of India would be framed by a Constituent Assembly.

Q13. What political status was proposed for India after the war by the Cripps Mission?: Dominion status.

Q14. Which major Indian political parties rejected the Cripps proposals?: Both the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League.

Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946

Q15. Who were the three members of the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946?: Lord Pethick Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps, and A.V. Alexander.

Q16. What was the main objective of the Cabinet Mission Plan?: To devise a scheme for the formation of a Constituent Assembly and to arrange the transfer of power from British to Indians.

Q17. What was the stance of the Cabinet Mission on the demand for Pakistan?: It rejected the demand for a separate Pakistan.

Q18. What was the proposed grouping of provinces under the Cabinet Mission Plan?: Provinces were divided into three groups (Group A – Hindu-majority provinces, Group B & C – Muslim-majority provinces).

Q19. What was the significance of the Cabinet Mission Plan for India’s independence: It paved the way for the Constituent Assembly of India which drafted the Constitution.

Mountbatten Plan (1947)

Q1. What was the main proposal of the Mountbatten Plan of June 3, 1947?: Transfer of power to Indians and partition of India into India and Pakistan.

Q2. When was the Mountbatten Plan announced?: 3rd June 1947.

Indian Independence Act, 1947

Q3. When did the Indian Independence Act come into effect?: 15th August 1947.

Q4. Who passed the Indian Independence Act, 1947? :The British Parliament.

Q5. What was the main provision of the Indian Independence Act, 1947?: It ended British rule in India, created two independent dominions (India and Pakistan), and transferred power to them.

Q6. After 15th August 1947, what happened to the office of the Secretary of State for India?: It was abolished.

Q7. Which province of British India decided by referendum to join Pakistan in 1947?: Sylhet (Assam) joined East Bengal (Pakistan).

Q8. What was the status of princely states after the Indian Independence Act, 1947?: They became independent and free to join either India or Pakistan.

Interim Government of India (1946)

Q9. When was the Interim Government of India formed?:  2nd September 1946.

Q10. Who was the Vice-President of the Executive Council in the Interim Government?: Jawaharlal Nehru.

Q11. Who held the portfolio of Home, Information & Broadcasting in the Interim Government?: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Q12. Who was the Finance Minister in the Interim Government?: Liaqat Ali Khan (Muslim League).

First Cabinet of Independent India (1947)

Q13. Who was the first Prime Minister of Independent India?: Jawaharlal Nehru.

Q14. Who was the Deputy Prime Minister in the first Cabinet of India?: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Q15. Who was the Defence Minister in the first Cabinet of India?: Baldev Singh.

Q16. Who was the Finance Minister in the first Cabinet of Independent India?: R.K. Shanmugham Chetty.

Q17. Who was the Minister of Education in the first Cabinet?: Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.

Q18. Who was the Health Minister in the first Cabinet?: Rajkumari Amrit Kaur.

Constituent Assembly of India (1946–1950)

Q19. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly of India? - Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Q20. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?- Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

Q21. Who was the Chairman of the Union Powers Committee?- Jawaharlal Nehru.

Q22. Who was the Chairman of the States Committee (Negotiating with Princely States)?- Jawaharlal Nehru.

Q23. Who was the Chairman of the Fundamental Rights, Minorities, and Tribal & Excluded Areas Committee?- Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Q24. Who was the Chairman of the Steering Committee?- Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Q25. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee?- Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

Prelims-Oriented Questions (Objective Type)

Q1. Who first suggested the idea of a Constituent Assembly in India? - M.N. Roy in 1934

Q2. The demand for a Constituent Assembly was officially accepted by which party in 1935?-Indian National Congress

Q3. The total number of members in the Constituent Assembly was: 389 (292 from British India, 93 from Princely States, 4 from Chief Commissioner’s provinces)

Q4. Who was elected as the President of the Constituent Assembly? - Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Q5. The Drafting Committee was chaired by: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Q6. When was the Constituent Assembly first met?: December 9, 1946

Q7. When was the Constitution of India adopted?: November 26, 1949

Q8. When did the Constitution come into effect?: January 26, 1950

Q9. From which country did India borrow the concept of Fundamental Rights?: USA

Q10. From which country did India borrow the concept of Directive Principles of State Policy?: Ireland

Mains-Oriented Questions (Descriptive Type)

Q1. Discuss the composition of the Constituent Assembly of India.

Answer: The Constituent Assembly had a total of 389 members. Out of these, 292 were representatives of British Indian provinces, 93 from Princely States, and 4 from Chief Commissioner’s provinces.After partition, the membership reduced to 299. The Assembly worked through several committees (e.g., Drafting Committee, Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee, Union Powers Committee).

Q2. Write a note on the Objectives Resolution.

Answer: Moved by Jawaharlal Nehru on 13 December 1946, adopted on 22 January 1947.

It laid down the philosophy and objectives of the Constitution:

• India to be an Independent Sovereign Republic.
• Guarantee of justice, equality, freedom of thought, expression, belief, faith, worship.
• Adequate safeguards for minorities, backward classes, and tribal areas.
• India to attain its rightful place among world nations.
• This resolution later became the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.

Q3. The Indian Constitution has borrowed features from several constitutions of the world. Explain with examples.

Answer: USA – Fundamental Rights, Judicial Review, Independence of Judiciary, Impeachment of President.

• UK – Parliamentary System, Rule of Law, Single Citizenship, Bicameralism.
• Ireland – Directive Principles of State Policy, Election of President, Nomination to Rajya Sabha.
• Canada – Federation with a strong Centre, Residual Powers.
• Germany (Weimar Constitution) – Suspension of Fundamental Rights during emergency.
• Australia – Concurrent List, Trade & Commerce freedom, Joint sitting of Parliament.
• USSR (former) – Fundamental Duties, Five-Year Plans.
• South Africa – Procedure for Constitutional Amendments, Election of Rajya Sabha members.

Q4. Explain the significance of 26 November 1949 and 26 January 1950 in the history of the Indian Constitution.

• Answer: 26 November 1949 – The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
• 26 January 1950 – The Constitution came into force. The date 26th January was chosen deliberately to honor the Purna Swaraj Declaration of 1930.

Member of Drafting Committee - N.Gopalaswamy Ayyangar, Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar, Dr. KM. munshi, Syed Mohd. Saadullah, B.L. Mitter (N.Madhav Rao), Dr. D.P. Khaitan( TT Krishnamachari)

Article 14 – Equality before Law

Q: What does Article 14 of the Indian Constitution provide?

A: It guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws within India. Borrowed from the USA (equal protection) and UK (equality before law).

Article 15 – Prohibition of Discrimination

Q: On what grounds does Article 15 prohibit discrimination?

A: Religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.

Article 17 – Abolition of Untouchability

Q: Which Article abolishes untouchability?

A: Article 17. It declares untouchability as abolished and forbids its practice in any form.

Article 19 – Freedom of Rights

Q: What are the six freedoms guaranteed under Article 19?

A: 1. Freedom of speech & expression

2. Freedom to assemble peacefully

3. Freedom to form associations/unions

4. Freedom to move freely throughout India

5. Freedom to reside & settle in any part of India

6. Freedom to practice any profession or occupation

Article 21 – Right to Life & Personal Liberty

Q: What does Article 21 guarantee?

A: Right to life and personal liberty. Interpreted broadly by SC to include: right to privacy, clean environment, education (later added as Art. 21A), etc.

Article 24 – Prohibition of Child Labour

Q: Which Article prohibits child labour in hazardous employment?

A: Article 24 – Prohibits employment of children below 14 years in factories, mines, or hazardous work.

Articles 25–28 – Right to Freedom of Religion

Q: Which Articles provide freedom of religion?

• A: Art. 25 – Freedom of conscience, profession, practice, propagation of religion
• Art. 26 – Freedom to manage religious affairs
• Art. 27 – No tax for promotion of any religion
• Art. 28 – Freedom from attending religious instruction in certain institutions

Articles 29 & 30 – Cultural & Educational Rights

Q: Which Articles protect minority rights in education?

• A: Art. 29 – Protection of interests of minorities
• Art. 30 – Right of minorities to establish & administer educational institutions

Article 32 – Constitutional Remedies

Q: Who called Article 32 the “heart & soul of the Constitution”?

A: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. It allows individuals to move Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights (writ jurisdiction).

Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)

Q: What is the purpose of DPSP (Part IV, Art. 36–51)?

A: They are non-justiciable guidelines to ensure social and economic democracy. 

• Example: Art. 38 – State to promote welfare of people
• Art. 39 – Principles like equal pay, health, livelihood
• Art. 40 – Organisation of village panchayats

Fundamental Duties (Part IVA, Art. 51A)

Q: When were Fundamental Duties added and on whose recommendation? - By 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976 on recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee.

Article 368 – Amendment Procedure

Q: Which Article deals with amendment of the Constitution? - Article 368. It provides the procedure for amendment by Parliament.

Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV, Art. 44–51)

Q1. Which Article deals with the Uniform Civil Code (UCC)? : Article 44 – Uniform civil code for the citizens.

Q2. Under which Article does the State provide free & early childhood care and education up to 6 years?: Article 45 (86th Constitutional Amendment, 2002).

Q3. Which Article directs the State to raise the level of nutrition and public health? : Article 47.

Q4. Which Article directs organisation of agriculture & animal husbandry?: Article 48

Q5. Fundamental Duties are in which Article and Part?: Article 51A, Part IVA (added by 42nd Amendment, 1976).

The Union Executive (Art. 52–78)

Q6. Who is the Head of the Union Executive?: The President of India (Art. 52).

Q7. Which Article deals with the election of the President?: Article 54.

Q8. What is the maximum number of terms for the President?: No limit. Re-election allowed (Art. 57).

Q9. Who acts as the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha?: Vice-President of India (Art. 64).

Q10. Who advises the President in carrying out his duties?: Council of Ministers (Art. 74) headed by the Prime Minister.

Q11. Which Article provides for Attorney General of India?:  Article 76.

The Parliament (Art. 79–122)

Q12. Which Article defines the Constitution of Parliament?: Article 79 – President + Rajya Sabha + Lok Sabha.

Q13. Which Article mentions the Composition of Rajya Sabha?: Article 80.

Q14. Which Article mentions the Composition of Lok Sabha?: Article 81.

Q15. Which Article allows the President to address both Houses?: Article 86.

Q16. Which Article mentions the Special Address by the President?: Article 87.

Q17. Who presides over Lok Sabha?: Speaker of Lok Sabha (Art. 93).

The Union Judiciary (Art. 124–147)

Q18. Which Article establishes the Supreme Court?: Article 124.

Q19. What is the retirement age of Supreme Court judges?: 65 years (Art. 124).

Q20. Who appoints the Chief Justice of India?: The President of India (Art. 124).

Q21. Which Article deals with the appointment of acting Chief Justice?:  Article 126.

Q22. Which Article deals with ad-hoc Judges of the Supreme Court?: Article 127.

Q23. Which Article provides Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?:  Article 131.

Q24. Which Article makes Supreme Court the Court of Record?: Article 129.

Important Q&A (Indian Polity & Constitution)

Fundamental Structure & Location

Q1. How many Schedules are there in the Indian Constitution originally and now?: Originally 8 Schedules, now increased to 12 Schedules.

Q2. What does the 12th Schedule contain?: Provisions related to Municipalities (Urban Local Bodies) – Article 243W.

Articles Related to the Union & States

Q3. Which Article deals with the Distribution of Legislative Subjects?: Article 246 – divides subjects into Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.

Q4. What is the Union List?: Subjects of national importance on which only Parliament can legislate (List I of 7th Schedule).

Q5. What is the State List?: Subjects of local/state importance, primarily legislated by the State Legislatures (List II of 7th Schedule).

Q6. What is the Concurrent List?: Subjects on which both Parliament and State Legislatures can make laws, but Union law prevails in case of conflict (List III of 7th Schedule).

Supreme Court & Judiciary

Q7. Which Article gives the power of review judgments or orders to the Supreme Court?: Article 137.

Q8. Which Article makes the law declared by the Supreme Court binding on all courts?: Article 141.

Q9. Which Article provides that the civil and judicial authorities must act in aid of the Supreme Court?: Article 144.

Ombudsman System

Q10. What is the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act?: Enacted in 2013, provides for the establishment of Lokpal at Union level and Lokayuktas at State level to investigate corruption.

Q11. The institution of Ombudsman was first established in which country?: Sweden (1809).

Q12. When was the Ombudsman system introduced in New Zealand & Norway? : New Zealand – 1962, Norway – 1962.

Ombudsman in India - Lokpal 

• Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose - Country first Lokpal
• Maharashtra is the first state in India to introduce the concept of Lokayukta and upa lokayuktas act 1971 commision headed by morarji desai in 1966 

Public Service Commissions

Q13. Which Articles deal with the Union and State Public Service Commissions (UPSC & SPSC)- Articles 315 to 323.

Q14. Who appoints the Chairman and Members of the UPSC?: The President of India.

Q15. What is the tenure of UPSC members?: 6 years or until 65 years of age, whichever is earlier.

Q16. To whom does the UPSC submit its annual report?: To the President, who lays it before Parliament.

Elections

Q17. Which Article provides for the Election Commission of India?:  Article 324.

Q18. What is the tenure of members of the Election Commission?: 6 years or until 65 years of age, whichever is earlier.

Comptroller & Auditor General of India (CAG)

Q19. Which Article provides for the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?: Article 148.

Q20. Who appoints the CAG and what is their tenure?: Appointed by the President, tenure of 6 years or until 65 years of age, whichever is earlier.

Q21. What is the primary duty of the CAG?: To audit all receipts, expenditure of the Government of India & States, and ensure accountability of public funds.

Emergency Provisions

Q1. Which Article deals with Proclamation of Emergency (National Emergency)?: Article 352.

Q2. Which Article deals with Proclamation of Financial Emergency?: Article 360.

Q3. Which Articles deal with Special Provisions for certain classes (SC, ST, Anglo-Indians)?: Articles 330–342, 338, 338A, 338B.

Constitutional Amendment

Q4. Which Article deals with the procedure of Constitutional Amendment?: Article 368.

Q5. Which Constitutional Amendment abrogated Article 370 (special status of Jammu & Kashmir)?:The Constitution (Application to Jammu & Kashmir) Order, 2019 under Article 370(3).

Temporary, Transitional & Special Provisions

Q6. Which Part of the Constitution contains Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions?: Part XXI (Articles 369–392).

Q7. What is the purpose of Part XXII (Articles 393–395)?: Deals with Short Title, Commencement, Authoritative text in Hindi & Repeals.

Schedules of the Indian Constitution

Q8. Originally, how many schedules were there in the Indian Constitution?: 8 Schedules.

Q9. How many Schedules does the Indian Constitution have at present?: 12 Schedules.

1st Schedule → Names of States & Union Territories, territorial jurisdiction.

2nd Schedule → Salaries, allowances, and emoluments of the President, Governors, Judges, CAG, etc.

3rd Schedule → Forms of Oaths & Affirmations.

4th Schedule → Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha.

5th Schedule → Administration & control of Scheduled Areas & Tribes.

6th Schedule → Administration of Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram.

7th Schedule → Union List, State List, Concurrent List (division of powers).

8th Schedule → Recognized Official Languages (22 languages).

9th Schedule → Validation of certain Acts & Regulations (added by 1st Amendment, 1951).

10th Schedule → Anti-Defection Law (added by 52nd Amendment, 1985).

11th Schedule → Powers & responsibilities of Panchayats (73rd Amendment, 1992).

12th Schedule → Powers & responsibilities of Municipalities (74th Amendment, 1992).

Tricks: TEARS OF OLD PM 

Special Features of Indian Constitution

Q11. How many Articles, Parts, and Schedules were there originally in the Indian Constitution?: 395 Articles, 22 Parts, 8 Schedules.

Q12. Presently, how many Articles, Parts, and Schedules are there in the Constitution?: 470+ Articles, 25 Parts, 12 Schedules (after various amendments).

Q13. What is meant by “India is a Union of States”?: It means India is an indestructible Union of destructible States (States can be reorganized, but Union cannot be dissolved).

Q14. What is the source of sovereignty in the Indian Constitution?: The people of India are the ultimate sovereign, as mentioned in the Preamble.

Berubari Case - SC held that Preamble was not part of the constitution 

Keshavanad Bharti Case - Preamble is part of constitution 

LIC - 1995 - Preamble is integral part of constitution 

Preamble is not enforceable in a court of law

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and V.P Menon played an important role in integration and merger of Indian state 

Art. 352 – National Emergency.

Art. 356 – President’s Rule (State Emergency).

Art. 360 – Financial Emergency.

Art. 368 – Constitutional Amendment procedure.

Art. 370 – Special status of J&K (abrogated in 2019).

Art. 371–371J – Special provisions for certain states 

Art. 371 - Maharashtra, Gujarat 

Art. 371 A - Nagaland 

Art. 371 B - Assam

Art. 371 C - Manipur

Art. 371 D - Andhra Pradesh 

Art. 371 E - Central University Andhra Pradesh 

Art. 371 F - Sikkim 36 CAA 1975

Art. 371 G - Mizoram 53 CAA 1986

Art. 371 H - Arunachal Pradesh 55 CAA 1986 

Art. 371 I - Goa 56 CAA 1987

Art. 371 J - Karnataka 98 CAA 2012.

1. When did the Indian Constitution come into force and when did it provide citizenship?: The Constitution of India came into force on 26th January 1950. Citizenship provisions are mentioned in Part II (Articles 5 to 11).

2. Under which Article is Parliament empowered to regulate citizenship?: Article 11 empowers Parliament to make laws relating to citizenship.

3. What is the Citizenship Act, 1955?: It is an act passed by Parliament to regulate the acquisition and termination of Indian citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution.

Citizenship in India

Q1. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Citizenship: Part II

Q2. Which Articles of the Constitution are related to Citizenship?: Articles 5 to 11

Q3. Which Article empowers Parliament to make laws on citizenship?: Article 11

Q4. In which year was the Citizenship Act passed?: 1955

Q5. How many ways are there to acquire Indian Citizenship under the Citizenship Act, 1955?: Five ways – By Birth, By Descent, By Registration, By Naturalization, and By Incorporation of Territory.

Q6. What are the three ways of losing Indian Citizenship?: Renunciation, Termination, and Deprivation.

Q7. Which Amendment made provisions that children of illegal migrants cannot be Indian citizens by birth?: Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003

Q8. What is the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019?: It provides Indian citizenship to Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis, and Christians from Afghanistan, Pakistan, and Bangladesh who entered India before 31st December 2014.

Q9. Which communities are excluded from the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019?: Muslims

Q10. What is Naturalization?: The process by which a foreigner can become an Indian citizen after fulfilling residence and other conditions (normally 12 years, reduced to 6 years for communities under CAA 2019).

Q11. Which Amendment introduced Overseas Citizen of India (OCI)?: Citizenship Amendment Act, 2005

Q12. Which Fundamental Rights are available only to citizens of India?: Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, and 30

Q13. Which Fundamental Right is available to both citizens and foreigners?:Article 14 – Right to Equality before law

Q14. Who decides the questions of acquisition and termination of Indian Citizenship?: The Government of India

Q15. Which Articles deal with citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution?: Articles 5 to 8

16. Which Amendment introduced the provision that children of illegal migrants cannot be Indian citizens by birth?: Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003.

What is Naturalization in Indian Citizenship?: A process by which a foreigner can become an Indian citizen after fulfilling conditions like 12 years of residence in India (reduced to 6 years for communities under CAA 2019)
Which Article deals with the rights of citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution? : Articles 5 to 8 deal with citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution.
What is Overseas Citizen of India (OCI)?: A scheme introduced by Citizenship Amendment Act, 2005, which provides limited dual citizenship facilities to persons of Indian origin living abroad.
Which Fundamental Right is closely related to Citizenship?: Article 15 & 16 (Equality of Opportunity & Non-Discrimination).
Can the Right to Equality (Article 14) be availed by foreigners?: Yes, Article 14 is available to both citizens and non-citizens.

Which Fundamental Rights are available only to Indian citizens?:

• Article 15 – Prohibition of discrimination
• Article 16 – Equality of opportunity in public employment
• Article 19 – Freedom of speech, movement, residence, etc.
• Article 29 & 30 – Protection of cultural and educational rights of minorities

Fundamental Rights – Right to Equality (Articles 14–18)

Q1. Which Articles in the Indian Constitution deal with the Right to Equality?: Articles 14 to 18

Q2. What does Article 14 provide?: Article 14 guarantees Equality before Law and Equal Protection of Laws to all persons within India, whether citizens or foreigners.

Q3. What is the meaning of “Equality before Law”?: It means that no person is above the law and all are equal before the courts, irrespective of status, position, or power.

Q4. What is the meaning of “Equal Protection of Laws”?: It means equal treatment in equal circumstances, ensuring fairness without arbitrary discrimination.

Q5. Which case is known as the cornerstone of Article 14?: Indira Sawhney vs Union of India (1992) – related to reservations and the Mandal Commission.

Q6. What does Article 15 prohibit?: Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.

Q7. What relaxations are provided under Article 15?:The State can make special provisions for women, children, socially and educationally backward classes, SCs, and STs.Reservation in educational institutions is allowed.

Q8. Which Amendment introduced reservation for economically weaker sections (EWS) in educational institutions?: 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 (10% reservation for EWS)

Q9. What does Article 16 provide?: Article 16 guarantees Equality of Opportunity in matters of public employment.

Q10. On which grounds does Article 16 prohibit discrimination?: Religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence.

Q11. What are the exceptions under Article 16?

• Reservation for backward classes (SCs, STs, OBCs).
• Reservation for EWS (103rd Amendment).
• Special provision for domiciles in certain states (like Andhra Pradesh, Telangana).

Q12. What is the landmark case related to Article 16(4) (reservation in promotion)?: Indra Sawhney Case (1992) – held that reservation in promotion is not allowed except in special cases.

Q13. Which Amendment allowed reservation in promotion for SCs and STs?: 77th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1995.

Q14. Which Article abolishes untouchability?: Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.

Q15. What is the punishment for practicing untouchability?: Punishable under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 and SC/ST Prevention of Atrocities Act, 1989.

Q16. Which Article abolishes titles (except military and academic)?: Article 18

Q17. Which titles are abolished under Article 18?: Titles like “Rai Bahadur,” “Khan Bahadur,” and foreign titles like “Sir.”

Q18. Which titles are exempted under Article 18?: Military and academic distinctions (e.g., Doctor, Major, Professor).

Q19. Which Amendment abolished privy purses to former rulers of princely states?: 26th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971.

Q20. Which Articles under Right to Equality are available only to Indian citizens?: Articles 15, 16, 17, and 18

Q21. Which Articles under Right to Equality are available to both citizens and foreigners?: Article 14

Fundamental Rights – Right to Freedom (Articles 19–22)

Q1. Which Articles in the Indian Constitution provide the Right to Freedom?: Articles 19 to 22

Q2. Which Article provides six fundamental freedoms to Indian citizens?: Article 19

Q3. What are the six freedoms guaranteed under Article 19(1)?

• Freedom of speech and expression
• Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
• Freedom to form associations or unions
• Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India
• Freedom to reside and settle in any part of India
• Freedom to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade, or business

Q4. Are these six freedoms absolute?: No, they are subject to reasonable restrictions in the interest of sovereignty, security, public order, morality, etc.

Q5. Which Amendment added the words “reasonable restrictions” to Article 19?: 1st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951

Q6. Which Amendment inserted “Right to form cooperative societies” as a fundamental right?: 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 (Article 19(1)(c))

Q7. What does Article 20 provide?: Protection in respect of conviction for offences.

Q8. What are the three protections guaranteed under Article 20?

Ans: 1. No ex-post facto law (no law can punish acts committed before it was enacted).

2. No double jeopardy (no person shall be punished twice for the same offence).

3. No self-incrimination (no person accused of an offence shall be compelled to testify against himself).

Q9. What does Article 21 guarantee?: Right to life and personal liberty – “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.”

Q10. Which case expanded the scope of Article 21 to include Right to Privacy?: Justice K.S. Puttaswamy vs Union of India (2017).

Q11. Which case interpreted “Right to Life” as “Right to Live with Dignity”?: Maneka Gandhi vs Union of India (1978).

Q12. List some rights derived from Article 21 through judicial interpretation.

• Right to Privacy
• Right to Shelter
• Right to Health
• Right to Education (later made Article 21A)
• Right to Pollution-free Environment
• Right to Legal Aid
• Right to Speedy Trial

Q13. Which Article provides Right to Education?: Article 21A (inserted by 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002).

Q14. What does Article 22 provide?: Protection of certain rights in cases of arrest and detention.

Q15. What are the rights of a person under ordinary arrest (Article 22)?:Right to be informed of the reason of arrest. Right to consult a legal practitioner. Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours. No detention beyond 24 hours without magistrate’s approval.

Q16. What is Preventive Detention under Article 22?: The detention of a person to prevent him from committing a possible offence in the future.

Q17. Maximum period of preventive detention under the Constitution?: 3 months (can be extended up to 12 months by Parliament under preventive detention laws).

Q18. Which Act allows preventive detention in India?: National

Article 20 – Protection in respect of conviction for offences

1. What protections are provided under Article 20 of the Indian Constitution?

• No ex-post facto law – No person can be convicted for an act not an offence at the time it was committed.
• No double jeopardy – No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
• No self-incrimination – No person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.

2. Q: Is Article 20 available to both citizens and foreigners? :Yes, it is available to both citizens and foreigners.

3. Q: Is protection against ex-post facto law applicable to both civil and criminal laws?: No, it applies only to criminal laws.

Article 21 – Protection of Life and Personal Liberty

4. What does Article 21 state?: “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.”

5.What case transformed the interpretation of Article 21?: Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India (1978) – Procedure established by law must be just, fair, and reasonable.

6. Name some rights derived from Article 21.

• Right to live with human dignity
• Right to livelihood (Olga Tellis case, 1985)
• Right to free legal aid & speedy trial (Hussainara Khatoon case, 1979)
• Right to education (Mohini Jain, 1992; Unni Krishnan, 1993; Article 21A inserted by 86th Amendment, 2002)
• Right to clean environment, health, privacy, shelter, etc.

Doctrine & Cases

7. What is the difference between “Procedure Established by Law” & “Due Process of Law”?

• Procedure established by law – Law made by legislature is enough if followed.
• Due process of law – Law itself must be just, fair, and reasonable.
• In India, after Maneka Gandhi case (1978), Article 21 includes elements of due process.

8. What is the doctrine of double jeopardy?: A person cannot be tried or punished twice for the same offence (Art. 20(2)).

Right to Education (RTE)

9. Which amendment made Right to Education a Fundamental Right: 86th Constitutional Amendment, 2002 → inserted Article 21A.

10. What is the scope of Article 21A (RTE)?: Free and compulsory education to all children between 6–14 years.

11. Which landmark judgments linked RTE to Article 21?

• Mohini Jain vs. State of Karnataka (1992) – Declared right to education as part of Right to Life.
• Unni Krishnan vs. State of Andhra Pradesh (1993) – Limited it to children up to 14 years.

Article 22 – Protection in case of Arrest & Detention

1. What rights does Article 22 provide to an arrested person?

• Right to be informed of the grounds of arrest
• Right to consult a legal practitioner
• Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours
• No detention beyond 24 hours without magistrate’s approval

2. What is preventive detention?: Detention of a person to prevent them from committing a possible offence in the future.

3. For how long can a person be kept in preventive detention without advisory board approval?: Maximum 3 months.

4. Q: Which amendment fixed the maximum period of preventive detention?: 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 → maximum 2 years.

Articles 23 & 24 – Right Against Exploitation

5. What does Article 23 prohibit?: Prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (forced labour), and other similar forms of forced labour.

6. What does Article 24 prohibit?: Prohibits employment of children below 14 years in factories, mines, and hazardous employment.

7. Is forced labour (bonded labour) violation of Fundamental Rights?: Yes, it violates Article 23.

Article 32 – Right to Constitutional Remedies

8. Which Article is called the “Heart and Soul of the Constitution”?: Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies).

9. Who called Article 32 the heart and soul of the Constitution?: B.R. Ambedkar.

10. Which writs can Supreme Court issue under Article 32: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, Quo-Warranto.

11. Is Article 32 itself a Fundamental Right?: Yes, it is a Fundamental Right.

12. Q: Can Article 32 be suspended?: Yes, during National Emergency (except for Articles 20 & 21).

Writ Jurisdiction

13. Which Articles empower High Courts to issue writs?: Article 226.

14. Difference between writ powers of SC (Art. 32) and HC (Art. 226)?

• SC → Only for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
• HC → For Fundamental Rights + any other legal rights.

Five Writs (Articles 32 & 226)

Q: What is Habeas Corpus?

• It means “to have the body”. Issued to produce a person who is detained illegally before the court.
• Purpose: To protect personal liberty against illegal detention.

Q: What is Mandamus?

• It means “we command”. Issued to a public official or authority to perform a duty they have failed/refused to perform.
• Against whom it cannot be issued: President, Governors, Chief Justices, and private individuals.

Q: What is Prohibition?

• Issued by a higher court to a lower court/tribunal to stop it from exceeding its jurisdiction.

Q: What is Certiorari?

• Issued by a higher court to lower court/tribunal to transfer a case or quash an order passed without jurisdiction.

Q: What is Quo Warranto?

• It means “by what authority”. Issued to prevent a person from holding a public office without legal authority.

Quick Trick to Remember

• H – Habeas Corpus → Human liberty
• M – Mandamus → Mandatory duty
• P – Prohibition → Prevent lower court
• C – Certiorari → Correct lower court
• Q – Quo Warranto → Question authority

Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A, Art. 51A)

1. Which amendment added Fundamental Duties to the Constitution?: 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.

2. On the recommendation of which committee were Fundamental Duties added?: Swaran Singh Committee, 1976.

3. How many Fundamental Duties are there originally and at present?

• Originally: 10 duties (1976)
• Present: 11 duties (added by 86th Amendment, 2002)

4. Which Fundamental Duty was added by the 86th Amendment Act, 2002?

A: Duty of parents/guardians to provide opportunities for education to children aged 6–14 years.

5. Are Fundamental Duties justiciable/enforceable by law?

A: No, they are non-justiciable, but Parliament can enforce them by law.

Relationship between Fundamental Rights (FR) & Directive Principles (DPSP)

6. Q: In which case did the Supreme Court first rule that FRs are superior to DPSPs?

A: Champakam Dorairajan case, 1951.

7. Q: Which amendment gave DPSPs precedence over FRs (certain Articles)?

A: 25th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971.

8. Q: Which landmark case upheld the primacy of DPSPs over certain FRs?

A: Kesavananda Bharati case, 1973.

9. Q: Which case held that FRs & DPSPs are complementary and should be balanced?

A: Minerva Mills case, 1980.

10. Q: Which Article declares that the State shall not make any law inconsistent with Fundamental Rights?: Article 13.

11. Q: Which Articles deal with Fundamental Duties?

A: Article 51A (Part IV-A).

12. Q: Which Article provides for enforcement of Fundamental Rights by the Supreme Court?

A: Article 32.

13. Q: Which amendment made Article 31C give precedence to all DPSPs over FRs, later struck down by SC?

A: 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 (struck down in Minerva Mills case, 1980).

14. Q: Which DPSP was converted into a Fundamental Right?

A: Free & compulsory education for children → Article 21A (86th Amendment, 2002).

Landmark Supreme Court Cases

1. Champakam Dorairajan Case (1951)

Q: What was the significance of Champakam Dorairajan case (1951)?

A: First Supreme Court case on DPSPs vs Fundamental Rights.Court held Fundamental Rights prevail over DPSPs. Led to the First Constitutional Amendment (1951).

2. Golaknath Case (1967)

Q: What was ruled in Golaknath vs. State of Punjab (1967)?

• Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights.
• FRs were made beyond the reach of amendment.

3. Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973)

Q: What is the importance of Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)?

• Introduced the Basic Structure Doctrine.
• Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution but cannot alter its Basic Structure.
• Upheld validity of 24th & 25th Amendments.

4. Indira Gandhi vs. Raj Narain Case (1975)

Q: What was held in Indira Gandhi vs. Raj Narain case (1975)?

• Struck down 39th Amendment (Election disputes of PM/President).
• Strengthened Basic Structure Doctrine → Free & fair elections are part of it.

5. Minerva Mills Case (1980)

Q: What was decided in Minerva Mills vs. Union of India (1980)?

• Struck down part of 42nd Amendment that gave unlimited amending power to Parliament.
• Reaffirmed Basic Structure Doctrine.
• Stressed balance between Fundamental Rights & DPSPs.

6. Maneka Gandhi Case (1978)

Q: What was the ruling in Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India (1978)?

• Expanded the scope of Article 21.
• “Procedure established by law” must be just, fair & reasonable.
• Introduced elements of Due Process of Law into Indian Constitution.

7. I.R. Coelho Case (2007)

Q: What was the significance of I.R. Coelho case (2007)?

A:Any law placed in the Ninth Schedule (after 1973) is subject to judicial review if it violates Basic Structure.

Landmark Cases – Timeline Q&A

1. Champakam Dorairajan Case – 1951

Q: What was the verdict in Champakam Dorairajan case (1951)?: FRs have primacy over DPSPs → led to First Constitutional Amendment, 1951.

2. Shankari Prasad Case – 1951

Q: What was held in Shankari Prasad case (1951)?: Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution under Article 368 includes Fundamental Rights.

3. Sajjan Singh Case – 1965

Q: What did the SC rule in Sajjan Singh case (1965)?: Reaffirmed that Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution including FRs.

4. Golaknath Case – 1967

Q: What was the ruling in Golaknath vs. State of Punjab (1967)?: Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights.

5. Kesavananda Bharati Case – 1973

Q: What is the significance of Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)?: Introduced Basic Structure Doctrine → Parliament can amend but not destroy Basic Structure.

6. Indira Gandhi vs. Raj Narain Case – 1975

Q: What did SC hold in Indira Gandhi vs. Raj Narain (1975)?: Struck down 39th Amendment; held that free & fair elections are part of Basic Structure.

7. Maneka Gandhi Case – 1978

Q: What did the SC decide in Maneka Gandhi case (1978)?: Expanded Article 21 → “Procedure established by law” must be just, fair & reasonable.

8. Minerva Mills Case – 1980

Q: What was decided in Minerva Mills case (1980)?: Struck down part of 42nd Amendment; reaffirmed balance between FRs & DPSPs is part of Basic Structure.

9. Waman Rao Case – 1981

Q: What did SC hold in Waman Rao case (1981)?: Laws placed in Ninth Schedule after 24th April 1973 (Kesavananda date) are subject to judicial review.

10. S.R. Bommai Case – 1994

Q: What is the importance of S.R. Bommai case (1994)?: Laid down principles for use of President’s Rule (Art. 356); secularism declared part of Basic Structure.

11. I.R. Coelho Case – 2007

Q: What was the verdict in I.R. Coelho case (2007)?: Any law placed in Ninth Schedule after 1973 can be reviewed if it violates Basic Structure.

• Kesavananda (1973): Basic Structure doctrine
• Minerva Mills (1980): Balance between FRs & DPSPs
• I.R. Coelho (2007): Judicial review of Ninth Schedule laws

1951 – Champakam → FRs > DPSPs

1951 – Shankari Prasad → Parliament can amend FRs

1965 – Sajjan Singh → Same as Shankari

1967 – Golaknath → Parliament cannot amend FRs

1973 – Kesavananda → Basic Structure

1975 – Indira Gandhi → Free & fair elections = Basic Structure

1978 – Maneka Gandhi → Expanded Art. 21

1980 – Minerva Mills → FR & DPSPs balance

1981 – Waman Rao → 9th Schedule laws reviewable (post-1973)

1994 – S.R. Bommai → President’s Rule limits, secularism basic structure

2007 – I.R. Coelho → 9th Schedule reviewable

1. What is the procedure for amending the Constitution of India?

Answer: Amendment Bill must be passed in each House of Parliament by a special majority (more than 50% of total membership and 2/3rd of members present and voting).Some amendments also require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures. President’s assent is required for final approval.

2. Can State Legislatures initiate a Constitutional Amendment Bill?

Answer: No. State Legislatures cannot initiate a Bill for amendment of the Constitution. Only Parliament can initiate such Bills under Article 368.

3. What was held in the Golak Nath Case (1967)?

• The Supreme Court ruled that Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights.
• A new Constituent Assembly would be required to make such changes.

4. Which Amendment gave Parliament power to amend Fundamental Rights?
Answer: 24th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971 restored Parliament’s power to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights.

5. What is the significance of Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973)?

• The Supreme Court laid down the Doctrine of Basic Structure.
• Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution, but cannot alter the Basic Structure.

6. What are some elements of the Basic Structure Doctrine?

• Supremacy of the Constitution.
• Sovereign, Democratic, Republican structure.
• Secularism.
• Judicial Review (Art. 32).
• Separation of Powers.
• Unity and Integrity of the Nation.
• Federalism.
• Fundamental Rights & Directive Principles balance.
• Independence of Judiciary.

7. What is the importance of Minerva Mills Case (1980)?

• Reaffirmed the Basic Structure Doctrine.
• Struck down clauses of the 42nd Amendment that limited judicial review.
• Emphasized balance between Fundamental Rights & Directive Principles.

8. What did the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) state regarding amendments?

• Inserted clause that “Amendments shall not be questioned in any court of law.”
• This was later struck down in the Minerva Mills Case.

9. What is Article 368 of the Indian Constitution?

• Provides the procedure for amendment of the Constitution.
• Amendment may be made by Parliament but subject to judicial review under the Basic Structure Doctrine.

10. What did the First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951 introduce?

• Added Articles 15(4) and 19(6).
• Inserted the 9th Schedule to protect land reform laws from judicial review.
• Restricted Right to Property.

1. Which Article deals with the amendment procedure of the Constitution?: Article 368.
2. Who can initiate a Constitutional Amendment Bill?: Only Parliament.
3. Is the President’s prior sanction required for introducing an Amendment Bill?: No.
4.What is the majority required to pass a Constitutional Amendment Bill? : Special majority – 2/3rd of members present and voting + more than 50% of total membership.
5. Which case ruled that Fundamental Rights cannot be amended: Golak Nath Case (1967).
6. Which Amendment restored Parliament’s power to amend Fundamental Rights?: 24th Amendment Act, 1971.
7. Which case gave the Doctrine of Basic Structure? : Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973).
8. Which case reaffirmed Basic Structure Doctrine and struck down part of 42nd Amendment?: Minerva Mills Case (1980).
9. Which Amendment inserted the 9th Schedule?: 1st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951.
10.Which Amendment inserted clause that amendments cannot be questioned in court?: 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
11.Which case declared Parliament’s power to amend as unlimited but subject to Basic Structure?: Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973).
12. Is there any provision for a referendum in Constitutional amendments in India?: No.
13. Which doctrine limits Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution?: Doctrine of Basic Structure
14. Who enunciated the Doctrine of Basic Structure?: Supreme Court of India in Kesavananda Bharati Case.
15. Which structure of Government is part of the Basic Structure?: Parliamentary System of Government.
16.Which Article provides Judicial Review?: Article 32.
17. What is ensured by the balance between Fundamental Rights & Directive Principles?: Harmony in governance and welfare state.
18. Which case upheld the validity of the 24th Amendment Act? : Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973).
19. Which case declared that any law violating Fundamental Rights under Part III is void?: Supreme Court in various cases, reaffirmed in Kesavananda Bharati.
20. What was the main outcome of Minerva Mills Case (1980)? : Judicial review and Fundamental Rights cannot be taken away; balance with Directive Principles upheld.

Constitutional Amendment Act

1. Which Amendment Act implemented the States Reorganisation Act, 1956?: 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956.
2. Which Amendment incorporated Dadra and Nagar Haveli as a Union Territory?: 10th Amendment Act, 1961.
3. Goa, Daman, and Diu were included into India by which Amendment?: 12th Amendment Act, 1962.
4. Which Article was inserted for special provisions of Nagaland?: Article 371A (13th Amendment Act, 1962).
5. Which Amendment made Pondicherry (now Puducherry) a Union Territory?: 14th Amendment Act, 1962.
6. Which Amendment included Sindhi language in the Eighth Schedule?: 21st Amendment Act, 1967.
7. Which Amendment gave full power to Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution including Fundamental Rights?: 24th Amendment Act, 1971.
8. Which Amendment gave power to Parliament to abolish Privy Purses?: 26th Amendment Act, 1971
9. Q: Which Amendment made Sikkim a full-fledged State of India?: 36th Amendment Act, 1975.
10. Q: Which Amendment clarified that the satisfaction of the President/Governor in issuing ordinances cannot be challenged in courts?: 38th Amendment Act, 1975.
11. Which Amendment curtailed judicial review of disputes regarding Prime Minister and Speaker elections?: 39th Amendment Act, 1975.
12. Which Amendment is called a Mini Constitution?: 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
13. Which Amendment gave power to the President to send back advice of Council of Ministers once?: 44th Amendment Act, 1978.
14. Which Amendment added the Tenth Schedule (Anti-defection Law)?: 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.
15. Which Amendment made Arunachal Pradesh a full-fledged State?: 55th Amendment Act, 1986.
16. Which Amendment made Goa a full-fledged State?: 56th Amendment Act, 1987.
17. Which Amendment incorporated an authoritative text of the Constitution in Hindi?: 58th Amendment Act, 1987.
18. Which Amendment reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 years?: 61st Amendment Act, 1989.
19. Which Amendment gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj?: 73rd Amendment Act, 1992.
20. Which Amendment gave constitutional status to Municipalities?: 74th Amendment Act, 1992.

Amendments Related to Language & Schedules

1. Which Amendment included Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali in the 8th Schedule?: 71st Amendment Act, 1992.
2. Which Amendment included Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali in the 8th Schedule?: 92nd Amendment Act, 2003.
3. Which Amendment renumbered the List of languages in the 8th Schedule from 18 to 22?: 92nd Amendment Act, 2003.

Amendments Related to Panchayati Raj & Urban Local Bodies

4. Which Amendment gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions?: 73rd Amendment Act, 1992.
5. Which Amendment gave constitutional status to Municipalities?: 74th Amendment Act, 1992.

Amendments Related to Reservation

6. Which Amendment provided for reservation of seats in Panchayats for SCs, STs, and women?: 73rd Amendment Act, 1992.
7. Which Amendment provided for reservation of seats in Legislatures of Arunachal Pradesh, Goa, Mizoram, Sikkim?: 73rd & 74th Amendments (1992).
8. Which Amendment gave reservation in promotions for SCs & STs?: 77th Amendment Act, 1995.
9. Which Amendment gave reservation in educational institutions (Article 15(5))?: 93rd Amendment Act, 2005.
10. Q: Which Amendment introduced 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS)?: 103rd Amendment Act, 2019.

Amendments Related to Elections & Tenure

11. Which Amendment reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 years?: 61st Amendment Act, 1989.
12. Which Amendment extended reservation of seats for SCs/STs in Lok Sabha & State Assemblies for 10 years (periodic extension)?: 95th Amendment Act, 2009 (extended to 2020), 104th Amendment Act, 2019 (further extended).

Other Important Amendments

13. Which Amendment added the Tenth Schedule (Anti-defection Law)?: 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.
14. Which Amendment disqualified members of Parliament/Legislature on grounds of defection?: 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.
15. Which Amendment made Delhi as National Capital Territory (NCT) with Legislative Assembly?: 69th Amendment Act, 1991.
16. Which Amendment inserted Panchayati Raj provisions in Part IX of the Constitution?: 73rd Amendment Act, 1992.
17. Which Amendment inserted Municipalities provisions in Part IX-A of the Constitution?: 74th Amendment Act, 1992.
18. Which Amendment created National Commission for Scheduled Castes & Scheduled Tribes (splitting later into two bodies)?: 65th Amendment Act, 1990.
19.  Which Amendment gave constitutional status to National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)?: 102nd Amendment Act, 2018.
20. Which Amendment introduced Goods & Services Tax (GST) in India?: 101st Amendment Act, 2016.

Important Questions & Answers

Q1. Under which Article is the manner of election of the President of India described?: Article 55 of the Constitution.

Q2. Who are included in the electoral college for the election of the President?

1. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament.
2. Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States.
3. Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry

Q3. What is the value of the vote of an MLA in the Presidential election?

Answer: Value of MLA’s vote = (Population of State ÷ Total elected MLAs of the State) × 1/1000.

Q4. What is the value of the vote of an MP in the Presidential election?
Answer: Value of MP’s vote = Total value of votes of all MLAs ÷ Total elected MPs.
Q5. What is the minimum age required for election as President of India?
Answer: 35 years.

Q6. What are the qualifications to contest for the post of President?

1. Citizen of India.
2. At least 35 years of age.
3. Qualified to be elected as a member of the Lok Sabha.
4. Must not hold any office of profit under the Union, State, or local authority.

Q7. Which Article provides for the oath or affirmation of the President?: Article 60.

Q8. What are the legislative powers of the President?

1. Summons and prorogues Parliament.
2. Dissolves Lok Sabha.
3. Addresses Parliament at the first session after each general election.
4. Nominates 12 members to Rajya Sabha and 2 Anglo-Indians to Lok Sabha (before 104th Amendment).
5. Gives assent to bills and can return a non-money bill for reconsideration.

Q9. What is the Goods and Services Tax (GST) and under which Amendment was it introduced?: GST is a single indirect tax levied on the supply of goods and services. It was introduced by the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016.

Q10. Which Schedule was amended to include GST?: The Seventh Schedule (Union and State lists) was amended to include GST.
Q11. Who has the power to recommend the imposition of President’s Rule in a state?: The Governor of the concerned State recommends to the President under Article 356.
Q12. What is the quorum required for the Presidential election?: One-tenth of the total number of members of both Houses of Parliament must be present.
Q13. Under which Article can the President be removed through impeachment?: Article 61 – on the ground of violation of the Constitution.
Q14. Who administers the oath of office to the President of India?: The Chief Justice of India (or in his absence, the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court).

Q15. What are the two types of Presidential veto powers in India?

1. Suspensive Veto – can return a non-money bill for reconsideration.
2. Absolute Veto – can withhold assent to a bill.

Important Q&A for UPSC & Competitive Exams

Q1. Under which Article is the manner of election of the President mentioned?: Article 55
Q2. What is the minimum age required to become the President of India?: 35 years
Q3. Who administers the oath of office to the President of India?: Chief Justice of India (or senior-most judge of the Supreme Court in his absence)
Q4. Which Article deals with the impeachment of the President?: Article 61
Q5. Who are included in the electoral college of the President of India?: Elected MPs of both Houses + Elected MLAs of States and UTs of Delhi & Puducherry
Q6. The value of the vote of an MLA in the Presidential election is based on what?: Population of the State (as per 1971 Census until 2026)
Q7. The value of an MP’s vote in the Presidential election is calculated how?: Total value of votes of all MLAs ÷ Total elected MPs
Q8. Under which Article does the President take oath of office?: Article 60
Q9. For how many years is the President of India elected?
Answer: 5 years
Q10. Which Amendment Act introduced GST in India?
Answer: 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016
Q11. GST is included in which Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
Answer: Seventh Schedule
Q12. Which Article allows imposition of President’s Rule in a State?

Answer: Article 356

Q13. What is the minimum quorum required in Parliament for the Presidential election?

Answer: One-tenth of the total members of both Houses
Q14. Who can recommend the imposition of President’s Rule in a State?
Answer: Governor of the concerned State
Q15. What is the minimum number of MPs/MLAs required to propose a Presidential candidate?
Answer: 50 proposers and 50 seconders
Q16. The President addresses Parliament at which occasions?
Answer: First session after each general election and at the first session of each year
Q17. The real executive power in India is vested in whom?
Answer: Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister
Q18. Which Article provides that the President is the Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces?
Answer: Article 53
Q19. Which Article provides that there shall be a President of India?
Answer: Article 52
Q20. What is the maximum time gap allowed between two sessions of Parliament summoned by the President?
Answer: 6 months

President & Election

Q1. Under which Article is the manner of election of the President mentioned?
Answer: Article 55
Q2. What is the minimum age required to become the President of India?
Answer: 35 years
Q3. Who administers the oath of office to the President of India?
Answer: Chief Justice of India
Q4. Which Article deals with the impeachment of the President?
Answer: Article 61
Q5. Who are included in the electoral college of the President of India?
Answer: Elected MPs of both Houses + Elected MLAs of States and UTs of Delhi & Puducherry
Q6. The value of the vote of an MLA in the Presidential election is based on what?
Answer: Population of the State (1971 Census until 2026)
Q7. The value of an MP’s vote in the Presidential election is calculated how?
Answer: Total value of votes of all MLAs ÷ Total elected MPs
Q8. Under which Article does the President take oath of office?
Answer: Article 60
Q9. For how many years is the President of India elected?
Answer: 5 years
Q10. What is the minimum number of proposers and seconders required for a Presidential candidate?
Answer: 50 proposers and 50 seconders
Q11. What is the minimum quorum required in Parliament for the Presidential election?
Answer: One-tenth of the total members of both Houses
Q12. Who can recommend the imposition of President’s Rule in a State?
Answer: Governor of the State
Q13. Who can remove the President of India?
Answer: Parliament, through impeachment
Q14. The President of India is elected by which method?
Answer: Proportional Representation by means of Single Transferable Vote (STV)
Q15. Which Article provides that there shall be a President of India?
Answer: Article 52

Powers of the President

Q16. The President addresses Parliament on which occasions?
Answer: First session after each general election and at the beginning of each year
Q17. Who has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha?
Answer: President of India
Q18. Which Article provides that the President is the Supreme Commander of Defence Forces?
Answer: Article 53
Q19. The President appoints the Prime Minister under which Article?
Answer: Article 75
Q20. Which Article empowers the President to promulgate ordinances?
Answer: Article 123
Q21. Which type of veto powers does the President have?
Answer: Absolute Veto and Suspensive Veto
Q22. Who nominates 12 members to Rajya Sabha?
Answer: President of India
Q23. Under which Article can the President nominate 2 Anglo-Indian members to Lok Sabha (before 104th Amendment)?
Answer: Article 331
Q24. Who declares a national emergency in India?
Answer: President of India
Q25. The President can seek the opinion of the Supreme Court under which Article?
Answer: Article 143

Vice President

Q26. Under which Article is the office of Vice President provided?
Answer: Article 63
Q27. What is the minimum age for the Vice President of India?
Answer: 35 years
Q28. Who elects the Vice President of India?
Answer: Members of both Houses of Parliament
Q29. Who administers the oath of office to the Vice President?
Answer: President of India
Q30. Who acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
Answer: Vice President of India

Parliament

Q31. What is the maximum time gap allowed between two sessions of Parliament?
Answer: 6 months
Q32. Who summons and prorogues Parliament?
Answer: President of India
Q33. Who presides over the joint sitting of Parliament?
Answer: Speaker of Lok Sabha
Q34. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not?
Answer: Speaker of Lok Sabha
Q35. Which Article deals with Money Bills?
Answer: Article 110

Goods and Services Tax (GST)

Q36. Which Amendment Act introduced GST in India?
Answer: 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016
Q37. GST is included in which Schedule of the Constitution?
Answer: Seventh Schedule
Q38. Under which Article was the GST Council established?
Answer: Article 279A
Q39. Who is the Chairman of the GST Council?
Answer: Union Finance Minister
Q40. Who decides disputes regarding GST Council recommendations?
Answer: The GST Council itself (decision by consensus or majority)

Emergency Provisions

Q41. Which Article deals with National Emergency?
Answer: Article 352
Q42. Which Article deals with State Emergency (President’s Rule)?
Answer: Article 356
Q43. Which Article deals with Financial Emergency?
Answer: Article 360
Q44. On what grounds can a National Emergency be declared?
Answer: War, external aggression, armed rebellion
Q45. How long can a Financial Emergency continue after approval?
Answer: Indefinitely (till revoked)

Miscellaneous

Q46. Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court?
Answer: President of India
Q47. Who appoints the Attorney General of India?
Answer: President of India
Q48. Which Article provides for the Union Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President?
Answer: Article 74
Q49. Who can dissolve the State Legislative Assembly?
Answer: Governor, with approval of the President
Q50. Which Constitutional Amendment abolished the nomination of Anglo-Indians to Lok Sabha and State Assemblies?
Answer: 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019

General Provisions

Q1. Who acts as the President when the office of President falls vacant?
Answer: Vice President of India
Q2. If the Vice President is also not available, who acts as the President?
Answer: Chief Justice of India (or senior-most judge of Supreme Court)
Q3. What is the maximum period an Acting President can hold office?
Answer: 6 months
Q4. Under which Article is the term of office of President mentioned?
Answer: Article 56
Q5. Under which Article is the re-election of President permitted?
Answer: Article 57

Powers of President

Q6. Who summons and prorogues Parliament and dissolves Lok Sabha?
Answer: President of India
Q7. Who addresses Parliament at the first session after each general election?
Answer: President of India
Q8. Who appoints the Prime Minister of India?
Answer: President of India
Q9. Who appoints the Governors of States?
Answer: President of India
Q10. Who appoints the Chief Justice and judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts?
Answer: President of India
Q11. Who appoints the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
Answer: President of India
Q12. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners?
Answer: President of India
Q13. Who appoints the Chairman and members of UPSC?
Answer: President of India
Q14. Who appoints the Attorney General of India?
Answer: President of India
Q15. Who appoints Ambassadors and High Commissioners to foreign countries?
Answer: President of India

Diplomatic & Military Powers

Q16. Who represents India in international affairs and treaties?
Answer: President of India
Q17. Who is the Supreme Commander of Defence Forces of India?
Answer: President of India

Emergency Powers

Q18. Who declares National Emergency in India?
Answer: President of India
Q19. Who can impose President’s Rule in a State?
Answer: President of India
Q20. Who can declare Financial Emergency in India?
Answer: President of India

President’s Removal & Acting Presidents

Q21. Under which Article can the President be impeached?
Answer: Article 61
Q22. On what grounds can the President be removed?
Answer: Violation of the Constitution
Q23. Who was the first Acting President of India?
Answer: V. V. Giri (1969)
Q24. Who was the first woman President of India?
Answer: Pratibha Patil (2007–2012)
Q25. Who was the first President of India?
Answer: Dr. Rajendra Prasad (1950–1962)

Prime Ministers of India 

1. Q: Who was the first Prime Minister of India?
A: Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru (15 August 1947 – 27 May 1964).
2. Q: Who was the shortest-serving Prime Minister of India?
A: Atal Bihari Vajpayee (First term: 16 May 1996 – 1 June 1996, only 13 days).
3. Q: Who is the only woman Prime Minister of India?
A: Indira Gandhi.
4. Q: Who succeeded Lal Bahadur Shastri as PM after his sudden death in Tashkent?
A: Indira Gandhi (1966).
5. Q: Which Prime Minister introduced economic liberalization in 1991?
A: P. V. Narasimha Rao with his Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh.

Vice Presidents of India

6. Q: Who was the first Vice President of India?
A: Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan (1952–1962).
7. Q: Who became the first Vice President to act as President of India?
A: V. V. Giri (1969, after the death of Dr. Zakir Husain).
8. Q: Who is the only Vice President of India to be elected twice?
A: Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan (1952–1962).
9. Q: Who was the Vice President of India during 2012–2017?
A: Mohammad Hamid Ansari.
10. Q: Who is the present Vice President of India (as of 2025)?
A: Jagdeep Dhankhar (since 2022).

Constitutional & Exam-Oriented

11. Q: Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the Vice President?
A: Article 63 to 71.
12. Q: Who is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
A: The Vice President of India.
13. Q: What is the term of office of the Vice President of India?
A: 5 years (eligible for re-election).
14. Q: Who presides over Rajya Sabha in the absence of Vice President?
A: Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
15. Q: In case of vacancy of the President’s office, who acts as President?
A: The Vice President of India.

Prime Minister & Deputy Prime Minister

1. Q: Who is called the ‘real executive head’ of India?
A: The Prime Minister of India.
2. Q: Who was the first Deputy Prime Minister of India?
A: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
3. Q: Is the post of Deputy Prime Minister a constitutional post?
A: No, it is not mentioned in the Constitution. It is created for political/administrative convenience.
4. Q: Who were the Prime Ministers defeated by a vote of no-confidence?
A: Indira Gandhi (1979) and Atal Bihari Vajpayee (1999)
5. Q: Which two Prime Ministers never faced Parliament during their tenure?
A: Chaudhary Charan Singh and H. D. Deve Gowda.

Council of Ministers

6. Q: What are the three categories of Ministers in the Union Council of Ministers?

• Cabinet Ministers
• Ministers of State
• Deputy Ministers

7. Q: Which article of the Constitution mentions the Council of Ministers?
A: Article 74.
8. Q: Who determines the size and categories of the Council of Ministers?
A: The Prime Minister.
9. Q: What is the constitutional limit on the size of the Council of Ministers?
A: 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 → Maximum 15% of Lok Sabha strength.
10. Q: To whom is the Council of Ministers collectively responsible?
A: The Lok Sabha.

Cabinet & Responsibilities

11. Q: Who is the head of the Union Cabinet?
A: The Prime Minister.
12. Q: What is the principle of ‘Collective Responsibility’?
A: All ministers are jointly responsible to the Lok Sabha for government policies and decisions.
13. Q: Can a person be a minister without being a Member of Parliament?
A: Yes, but only for 6 months (must get elected/nominated within that time).
14. Q: Who coordinates the work of different ministries?
A: The Prime Minister.
15. Q: What is the difference between Cabinet Ministers and Ministers of State

• Cabinet Ministers: Head important ministries, take part in decision-making.
• Ministers of State: May have independent charge or work under Cabinet Ministers.

Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha

Q1. When was the 1st Lok Sabha constituted?
A1. 17th April 1952.
Q2. When was the Rajya Sabha first constituted and when did its 1st sitting take place?
A2. Constituted on 3rd April 1952; First sitting on 13th May 1952.
Q3. What is the tenure of Lok Sabha?
A3. 5 years (unless dissolved earlier).


Sessions of Parliament

Q4. What is the maximum gap allowed between two sessions of Parliament?
A4. 6 months.

Q5. Define a Session of Parliament.
A5. Period between first sitting of a House after summoning and prorogation/dissolution.

Q6. What is the difference between Adjournment, Prorogation, and Dissolution?
A6.

Adjournment → Temporary suspension for hours/days/weeks.

Prorogation → End of a session by President.

Dissolution → End of the Lok Sabha itself (not Rajya Sabha).

Legislative Work

Q7. What happens to bills pending in Lok Sabha upon its dissolution?
A7. They lapse (except those pending in Rajya Sabha not passed by Lok Sabha).

Q8. Does dissolution affect a joint sitting?
A8. No, if the President has already notified intention to summon a joint sitting.

Qualifications of MPs

Q9. What are the minimum age requirements for members of Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha?
A9.

Lok Sabha → 25 years
Rajya Sabha → 30 years

Q10. State any disqualifications for being a Member of Parliament.
A10.

Holding office of profit under Govt. of India/State
Unsound mind or undischarged insolvent (declared by court)
Not a citizen of India or acquired citizenship of another country
Disqualified by law made by Parliament

Speaker & Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha

Q11. Who presides over Lok Sabha in absence of Speaker?
A11. Deputy Speaker.
Q12. Who decides on questions of disqualification of MPs under Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law)?
A12. The Speaker of Lok Sabha (or Chairman in Rajya Sabha).
Q13. How is the Speaker removed?
A13. By a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of Lok Sabha, with 14 days’ prior notice.
Q14. Who was the first Speaker of Lok Sabha?
A14. Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar (1952–56).
Q15. Who was the first woman Speaker of Lok Sabha?
A15. Meira Kumar (2009–14).

Special Points

Q16. What happens if the Speaker’s office falls vacant?
A16. Deputy Speaker performs duties until a new Speaker is elected.
Q17. Who decides on a casting vote in case of equality in Lok Sabha?
A17. Speaker (has a casting vote).
Q18. Who summons each House of Parliament?
A18. The President of India.

Chairman & Deputy Chairman (Rajya Sabha)

Q1. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha?: The Vice-President of India.
Q2. Who presides over Rajya Sabha in the absence of the Chairman?:The Deputy Chairman.
Q3. How is the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha removed?: By a resolution passed by a majority of members of Rajya Sabha (Article 90).
Q4. Who was the first Chairman of Rajya Sabha?: Dr. S. Radhakrishnan (as Vice-President, 1952).
Q5. Who was the first woman Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha?: Violet Alva.

Privileges of Parliament

Q6. What are the two categories of Parliamentary Privileges?
1. Individual Privileges → enjoyed by each member (e.g., freedom from arrest in civil cases, freedom of speech in Parliament).
2. Collective Privileges → enjoyed by each House (e.g., right to regulate its internal affairs, right to publish debates).
Q7. For how many days before and after a session are MPs free from arrest in civil cases?: 40 days before and 40 days after.
Q8. Is immunity available to MPs in criminal cases?: No. Only in civil cases.
Q9. Can a member be compelled to give evidence in court while Parliament is in session?:  No, without prior permission of the House.

Legislative Procedure (Other than Money Bill)

Q10. What are the stages of introduction and passing of an ordinary bill?
1. First Reading → Introduction
2. Second Reading → Detailed discussion / Select Committee / Clause-by-clause consideration
3. Third Reading → Final debate & voting
4. Other House → Same three stages
5. President’s Assent

Money Bill & Financial Bill

Q13. What is the role of Rajya Sabha in a Money Bill?: 

• Can give recommendations within 14 days.
• Lok Sabha may accept or reject these recommendations.
• If not returned within 14 days → deemed passed by both Houses.

Q14. What is the difference between a Money Bill and a Financial Bill?

• Money Bill (Art. 110) → Deals only with taxation, borrowing of money, Consolidated Fund, etc.
• Financial Bill → Deals with financial matters but not exclusively. Can be introduced in either House (on President’s recommendation).

Q15. Under which Article is the Consolidated Fund of India regulated?: Article 266.

Miscellaneous

Q16. Who certifies whether a bill is a Money Bill?: Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Q17. What is the notice period for a Private Member’s Bill?: 1 month.
Q18. Can Rajya Sabha reject a Money Bill?:  No, it can only recommend changes.

Money Bill & Financial Bill

Q1. What happens if a Money Bill is not returned by Rajya Sabha within 14 days?
A1. It is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form it was passed by Lok Sabha. (Art. 109)
Q2. Who certifies a bill as a Money Bill?: The Speaker of Lok Sabha (final authority).
Q3. What are the two types of Financial Bills?
A3.Financial Bill (I) → Deals with matters in Art. 110 + other matters. Can only be introduced in Lok Sabha with President’s recommendation.
Financial Bill (II) → Deals with financial matters but not covered in Art. 110. Can be introduced in either House, no President’s recommendation required.

Joint Sitting of Parliament

Q4. Under which Article is a Joint Sitting of both Houses provided?: Article 108.
Q5. Who presides over a Joint Sitting?
A5. Speaker of Lok Sabha (in absence → Deputy Speaker → Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha → any person chosen by members).
Q6. In which cases is Joint Sitting not applicable?
A6. Money Bills, Constitutional Amendment Bills

Budget & Financial Legislation

Q7. What is the Annual Financial Statement?: The statement of estimated receipts & expenditure of Govt. of India for a financial year, laid before Parliament by the President (Art. 112).
Q8. What are the three types of expenditure in the Union Budget?
A8. 1. Expenditure charged on Consolidated Fund of India.
2. Expenditure made from Consolidated Fund but voted by Parliament.

3. Expenditure from Contingency Fund / Public Account. 

Q9. What is a Vote on Account?: Provision to meet short-term expenditure of Govt. until Budget is passed (usually for 2 months).
Q10. What is a Supplementary Grant?: Additional funds granted during a financial year when expenditure exceeds the approved amount.

Parliamentary Committees

Q11. What is the Estimates Committee?: Committee of 30 members (Lok Sabha only) that examines budget estimates and suggests economies in expenditure.
Q12. What is the Public Accounts Committee (PAC)?: 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha + 7 from Rajya Sabha). Examines CAG reports and ensures accountability of govt. expenditure. Chairman is from Opposition (by convention).
Q13. Who lays the report of CAG before Parliament?: The President of India.

Representation of States in Parliament

Q14. Which state has the highest representation in Lok Sabha?: Uttar Pradesh (80 seats).
Q15. Which state has the highest representation in Rajya Sabha?: Uttar Pradesh (31 seats).
Q16. How many seats are there in Rajya Sabha & Lok Sabha at present?: Lok Sabha → 543 elected + 2 nominated (total 545), Rajya Sabha → 238 elected + 12 nominated (total 250).

Parliamentary Devices & Terms

1. What is Question Hour?: First hour of a sitting in Parliament when members ask questions and Ministers answer.

What are the types of Questions?
Starred Question: Oral answer, supplementary questions allowed. (10-day notice)
Unstarred Question: Written answer, no supplementary. (10-day notice)
Short Notice Question: Asked with less than 10-day notice, requires Speaker’s discretion.

What is Zero HourPeriod after Question Hour where members raise matters without prior notice. (30 minutes approx.)

Motions

What is a Privilege Motion?: Moved when a member feels a Minister has breached parliamentary privilege.

What is a Point of Order?: Raised when proceedings do not follow parliamentary rules.

What is a Cut Motion? Name its types.: Motion to reduce demand for grant.

• Policy Cut – Disapproval of policy (reduce amount to ₹1).
• Economy Cut – Economy in expenditure (reduce by specific amount).
• Token Cut – Raise specific grievance (reduce by ₹100).

What is a No-Confidence Motion?: If Lok Sabha passes it, the Council of Ministers must resign.

What is a Censure Motion?: Differs from No-confidence motion; censures govt. policies/actions, reasons must be stated.

What is an Adjournment Motion?: Motion to adjourn House to discuss urgent matter of public importance.

What is a Calling Attention Motion?: A member may, with Speaker’s permission, call attention of a Minister to urgent matter of public importance.

What is Closure Motion? Mention types.: Motion to cut short debate.

Simple Closure – “Matter be now put to vote.”

Closure by Compartments – Debate confined to specific sections.

Kangaroo Closure – Only important points discussed, others skipped.

Guillotine Closure – Undiscussed demands put to vote at once.

Other Terms

What is Quorum in Parliament?: Minimum presence required = 1/10th of total members of the House.
What is Guillotine in Parliamentary terms?:At end of allotted discussion days on Budget, all undiscussed demands for grants are put to vote.
What is Lame-Duck Session?: When old Parliament meets after new Parliament has been elected but not yet formed.
What is Shadow Cabinet?: Practice in some countries where opposition forms a parallel cabinet.
Who is the Leader of Opposition?: Statutory recognition if party has at least 10% of total seats. Gets status and perks of Cabinet Minister.

All money received by Govt. of India goes into which accounts?: Consolidated Fund of India, Public Account of India.

Parliament & Finance

1. What does the Consolidated Fund of India consist of?

• All revenues received by Government of India.
• All loans raised by Government.
• All money received in repayment of loans. (Art. 266(1))

2. What is the Public Account of India?: All other public money received on behalf of Government of India (e.g., Provident Funds, Small Savings, etc.).

3. What is the Contingency Fund of India?

Fund created for meeting unforeseen expenditure. (Art. 267)

Powers of Rajya Sabha

4. Can Rajya Sabha introduce a Money Bill?: No. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in Rajya Sabha.

5. Can Rajya Sabha reject/amend a Money Bill?: No. Lok Sabha has final say on Money Bills.

6. When can Rajya Sabha pass a resolution under Article 249?: Parliament can make law on a State subject in national interest if Rajya Sabha passes by 2/3 majority.

7. Can new All-India Services be created? Yes, Rajya Sabha may resolve by 2/3 majority to create new All-India Services. (Art. 312)

Supreme Court of India

8. When was the Supreme Court inaugurated?: 28 January 1950. (Art. 124)

9. Who is called the ‘Guardian of the Constitution’?: Supreme Court of India.

10. Qualifications for appointment as Supreme Court Judge: Citizen of India + at least 5 years Judge of High Court, OR Advocate in High Court for at least 10 years, OR distinguished jurist.

11. Tenure of Supreme Court Judges: Till age of 65 years.

12. Removal of Supreme Court Judge (Impeachment)

• On grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
• Motion signed by 100 Lok Sabha or 50 Rajya Sabha members → Investigated → Passed by special majority in both Houses.

13. Strength of Supreme Court (2019 amendment): 33 Judges + Chief Justice = 34 total.

14. In which language are Supreme Court proceedings conducted?: English only.

15. Who appoints Judges of Supreme Court?: President, after consultation with Judges of SC and High Court. (Art. 124)

16. Who appoints the Chief Justice of India?: President of India.

17. What is the jurisdiction of Supreme Court?: Original, Appellate, Advisory.

18. What is Writ Jurisdiction of SC?: Under Article 32, SC issues writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

19. Which is the highest court of appeal in India?: Supreme Court of India.

20. Under which Act is CJI office under RTI? : Central Information Commission, 2019 ruling → Office of CJI comes under RTI.

Supreme Court – Articles & Powers

1. Which Article gives the Supreme Court advisory jurisdiction? Article 143 – SC may give its opinion to the President on public importance questions.

2. Who appoints Judges of Supreme Court? : President of India.

3. Who decides the number of judges in the Supreme Court? - Parliament by law.

4. What is the composition of the SC Collegium? :CJI + 4 senior-most judges of SC.

Salary & Allowances

5. Salary of Chief Justice of India (CJI): ₹2,80,000 per month (w.e.f. 2017).

6. Salary of Supreme Court Judge: ₹2,50,000 per month (w.e.f. 2017).

7. Salary of High Court Chief Justice: ₹2,50,000 per month.

8. Salary of High Court Judge: ₹2,25,000 per month.

High Court – Appointment & Tenure

9. Who appoints a High Court Judge? President, after consultation with CJI, Governor of State, and Chief Justice of that HC.

10. Who administers oath to a High Court Judge? : Governor of the State.

11. Tenure of a High Court Judge: Holds office until age of 62 years.

12. How can a High Court Judge leave office?

• Resignation to President.
• Appointment as SC Judge.
• Transfer to another HC by President.
• Removal by President.

13. Qualifications for High Court Judge: Citizen of India + at least 10 years judicial office, OR advocate of High Court for 10 years.

14. Can a retired High Court Judge practice law? - Cannot plead in any court in India, except Supreme Court & other High Courts where he/she has not worked.

High Courts – Structure

15. Which Article deals with High Courts? - Article 214.

16. How many High Courts are there in India? - 25 High Courts (latest status after Telangana HC, 2019).

17. Which Union Territory alone has a High Court of its own? - Delhi.

18. Which High Court has two circuit benches at Dharwad & Gulbarga? - Karnataka High Court.

19. Do Nagaland & Union Territories (except Delhi) have their own High Court? - No, they come under jurisdiction of other HCs.

20. Which High Court has jurisdiction over Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram & Arunachal Pradesh- Guwahati High Court.

21. Which High Court has a bench at Port Blair (A&N Islands)? - Calcutta High Court.

Q: The Centre–State relationship in India is modeled on which country’s Constitution?

A: The Constitution of Canada.

2.Q: Which powers are divided between the Centre and the States in India?

A: Legislative, Executive, and Financial powers

3.Q: Is there a division of Judicial power between Centre and States in India? Why?

A: No. Judiciary is integrated and independent for both Centre and States.

4.Q: How many lists are provided in the 7th Schedule of the Constitution?

A: Three lists:

• List-I (Union List) – Present 100 subjects (originally 97).
• List-II (State List) – Present 61 subjects (originally 66).
• List-III (Concurrent List) – Present 52 subjects (originally 47).

5.Q: Give 5 important subjects from the Union List.

A: Defence, Foreign Affairs, Currency, Atomic Energy, Railways.

6.Q: Give 5 important subjects from the State List.

A: Police, Public Health & Sanitation, Agriculture, Irrigation, Local Government.

7.Q: Give 5 important subjects from the Concurrent List.

A: Criminal Law, Civil Procedure, Marriage & Divorce, Population Control & Family Planning, Education.

8.Q: Which subjects were transferred from State List to Concurrent List by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976)?

A: Education, Forests, Weights & Measures, Protection of Wild Animals & Birds, Administration of Justice.

9.Q: Who has power to make laws on Residuary Subjects?

A: The Parliament (Union Government).

10.Q: Which Article empowers Parliament to make laws on matters not enumerated in State or Concurrent List?

A: Article 248.

11.Q: Parliament has exclusive power to make laws with respect to GST according to which Constitutional Amendment?

A: 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016.

12.Q: Which Article deals with the Union List?

A: Article 246 (Union List, State List, Concurrent List).

13.Q: Mention some important Articles related to Centre–State relations.

247 – Power of Parliament to provide for the establishment of additional courts.

248 – Residuary powers of legislation.

249 – Power of Parliament to legislate on matters in State List in national interest.

250 – Power of Parliament to legislate on State List during Emergency.

252 – Parliament’s power to legislate for two or more States by consent.

268–272 – Distribution of revenue between Union & States.

275 – Grants from Union to States.

280 – Finance Commission.

292 – Borrowing by the Government of India.

14.Q: What special provision is mentioned under Article 249?

A: Parliament can legislate on matters in the State List in national interest if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution with 2/3rd majority.

Centre–State Relations (Administrative & Financial)

1.Q: Which Articles of the Constitution deal with administrative relations between the Centre and the States?

A: Articles 256 to 263 (Part XI of the Constitution).

2.Q: Which Article empowers Parliament to create new All India Services?

A: Article 312.

3.Q: Under which Article can the President establish an Inter-State Council?

A: Article 263.

4.Q: Which Articles of the Constitution deal with Centre–State financial relations?

A: Articles 268 to 293 (Part XII).

5.Q: Which two Constitutional Amendments introduced major changes in financial relations between Centre and States?

A: 80th Amendment Act, 2000 and 101st Amendment Act, 2016.

6.Q: What was the significance of the 80th Amendment Act, 2000?

A: It provided for subsuming of various central taxes and levies into a single divisible pool (corporation tax, customs, excise duties, etc.).

7.Q: What was the significance of the 101st Amendment Act, 2016?

A: It introduced Goods & Services Tax (GST), subsuming most indirect taxes of Centre and States into a unified tax system.

8.Q: Name the four main commissions/committees set up to review Centre–State relations.

A:1. Administrative Reforms Commission (1966) – Chairman Morarji Desai.

2. Rajamannar Committee (1969) – Chairman Dr. P.V. Rajamannar.

3. Sarkaria Commission (1983) – Chairman R.S. Sarkaria.

4. Punchhi Commission (2007) – Chairman Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi.

9.Q: What was the main objective of the Sarkaria Commission (1983)?

A: To examine and review the working of existing arrangements between Centre & States and recommend changes to improve Centre–State relations.

10.Q: When was the Inter-State Council established and on whose recommendation?

A: Established in 1990 on the recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission.

The Governor (Executive of the States – Part VI)

11.Q: Which Articles of the Constitution deal with the Governor of a State?

A: Articles 153 to 163.

12.Q: Under which Article is the Governor of a State appointed?

A: Article 155 – appointed by the President.

13.Q: What is the term of office of a Governor?

A: He holds office during the pleasure of the President (Article 156).

14.Q: What are the qualifications to become a Governor?

A: (Article 157)

1. Must be a citizen of India.

2. Must be at least 35 years of age.

15.Q: Who administers the oath of office to the Governor?

A: Chief Justice of the High Court of the State (or senior-most judge available). (Article 159).

16.Q: On what grounds can a Governor be removed?

A: The Constitution does not specify any grounds; he holds office at the pleasure of the President.

Governor – Appointment, Tenure & Removal

1. Q: Who appoints the Governor of a state?

A: The President of India.

2. Q: What is the normal term of office of the Governor?

A: 5 years (but holds office at the pleasure of the President).

3. Q: Can a Governor be reappointed?

A: Yes, there is no bar to reappointment.

4. Q: Who can dismiss the Governor?

A: The President.

5. Q: What is the minimum age required to become a Governor?

A: 35 years.

Powers of Governor

6. Q: Does the Governor have diplomatic or military powers like the President?

A: No. He only has executive, legislative, and judicial powers similar to the President.

7. Q: Under which Article can the Governor promulgate an ordinance?

A: Article 213.

8. Q: Who appoints the Chief Minister and other ministers?

A: The Governor.

9. Q: Who appoints the Advocate General of the State?

A: The Governor.

10. Q: Does the Governor have the power to appoint judges of the High Court?

A: No, judges of High Courts are appointed by the President.

Legislative Powers

11. Q: Does the Governor have the right to address and send messages to the State Legislature?

A: Yes.

12. Q: Can the Governor nominate members to the State Legislative Council?

A: Yes, those with special knowledge in literature, science, art, cooperative movement, and social service.

13. Q: Which nomination power Governor does NOT have that the President has?

A: Governor cannot nominate members for Rajya Sabha.

14. Q: Which type of Bill requires prior recommendation of the Governor before introduction in State Legislature?

A: Money Bill.

15. Q: Does the Governor have the power to dissolve the State Legislative Assembly?

A: Yes, he can dissolve it at any time on the advice of the Chief Minister.

Judicial & Emergency Powers

16. Q: Under which Article can the Governor grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remission of punishment?

A: Article 161

17. Q: Can the Governor declare an emergency in the state on his own?

A: No, he cannot declare an emergency.

Discretionary Powers of Governor

18. Q: Name one important discretionary power of the Governor.

A: Reserving a Bill for the consideration of the President.

19. Q: Who has the power to dismiss the Council of Ministers if they lose confidence of the Legislative Assembly?

A: The Governor.

20. Q: When is the Governor allowed to exercise discretion?

A: When no party has a clear majority in the Legislative Assembly.

Chief Minister & Council of Ministers

21. Q: Who is the head of the State Council of Ministers?

A: The Chief Minister.

22. Q: Who appoints the Chief Minister?

A: The Governor.

23. Q: Who decides the portfolios of State Ministers?

A: The Chief Minister.

Bicameral Legislature

1. Q: How many states in India have bicameral legislatures (two houses)?

A: 6 states – Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Uttar Pradesh.

2. Q: Under which Article can a Legislative Council be created or abolished?

A: Article 169.

3. Q: Who decides on the creation/abolition of a Legislative Council in a state?

A: Parliament, on the basis of a resolution passed by the State Legislative Assembly with special majority.

Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad)

4. Q: Is the Legislative Council a permanent body?

A: Yes, it is a permanent body like Rajya Sabha and is not subject to dissolution.

5. Q: What fraction of members of a Legislative Council retire every 2 years?

A: 1/3rd of its members.

6. Q: What is the maximum and minimum strength of a Legislative Council?

A: Maximum – 1/3rd of the Legislative Assembly strength; Minimum – 40 members. (Exception: Jammu & Kashmir earlier had 36)

7. How are members of Legislative Councils elected/nominated?

• 1/3rd elected by Legislative Assembly members.
• 1/3rd elected by local bodies.
• 1/12th elected by teachers.
• 1/12th elected by graduates.
• Remaining nominated by the Governor (literature, science, art, cooperative movement, social service).

Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha)

8. Q: What is the normal term of a Legislative Assembly?

A: 5 years (can be dissolved earlier).

9. Q: What is the minimum and maximum strength of a Legislative Assembly?

A: Minimum – 60; Maximum – 500 members. (Exceptions: Sikkim – 32, Goa – 40, Mizoram – 40)

10. Q: How are members of Legislative Assembly elected?

A: Directly by the people through adult suffrage.

11. Q: What is the minimum age to become a member of Legislative Assembly?

A: 25 years.

12. Q: What is the minimum age to become a member of Legislative Council?

A: 30 years.

Miscellaneous

13. Q: Who can nominate one member of Anglo-Indian community to the State Assembly?

A: The Governor (Article 333).

14. Q: Which House in the State Legislature can be dissolved?

A: Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha).

15. Q: Which House in the State Legislature is a permanent body?

A: Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad).

16. Q: Which Article mentions that 1/3rd of the Legislative Council members retire every 2 years?

A: Article 172(2).

Comparison of Legislative Procedures between State Legislature & Parliament

Q1. For Money Bills, how is the legislative procedure between State Legislature and Parliament similar?

👉 For Money Bills, the procedure is the same — the Council can only make recommendations, and the Assembly has the final say.

Q2. For other Bills, what is the power of the Legislative Council regarding delay?

👉 The Legislative Council can delay a Bill by a maximum of 3 months in the first instance and 1 month in the second instance.

Q3. Does the Legislative Council have power to reject a Bill passed by the Assembly?

👉 ❌ No, the Council cannot reject a Bill; it can only delay it. The Assembly has overriding power.

Governor’s Power of Veto (Art. 200)

Q4. When a Bill is presented before the Governor, what are the options available?

• 1. Give assent to the Bill.
• 2. Withhold assent.
• 3. Return the Bill (other than Money Bill) for reconsideration.
• 4. Reserve the Bill for the consideration of the President.

Q5. Can the Governor return a Money Bill for reconsideration?

👉 ❌ No, the Governor cannot return a Money Bill.

Governor’s Power to Promulgate Ordinances

Q6. Who advises the Governor to promulgate Ordinances?

👉 Ordinances must be promulgated with the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.

Q7. What is the time limit for an Ordinance to remain in force?

👉 Ordinance ceases to operate after 6 weeks from the reassembly of the Legislature unless disapproved earlier.

Q8. Can the Governor withdraw an Ordinance at any time?

👉 ✅ Yes, the Governor can withdraw an Ordinance anytime.

Q9. What is the scope of the Governor’s Ordinance-making power?

👉 It is confined to subjects in List II (State List) and List III (Concurrent List) of the Seventh Schedule.

Q10. Can the Governor promulgate an Ordinance without instructions from the President?

👉 ❌ No, if the Bill requires President’s sanction, then prior approval is necessary before issuing an Ordinance.

Privileges of State Legislature

Q11. Are the privileges of State Legislature similar to those of Parliament?

👉 ✅ Yes, they are similar to the Union Parliament.

Q12. Who decides if the privileges of the House have been breached?

👉 Each House itself is the sole judge of breach of its privileges. Courts have no jurisdiction in this matter.

Panchayati Raj & Constitutional Provisions

Q13. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced Panchayati Raj?

👉 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992

Q14. When did the 73rd Amendment come into force?

👉 On 24 April 1993.

Q15. Which Part and Schedule were added to the Constitution by the 73rd Amendment?

• Part IX – The Panchayats
• Eleventh Schedule – containing 29 subjects

Q16. What is the minimum age for Panchayat elections?

👉 21 years.

Q17. How is reservation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes provided in Panchayats?

👉 Seats are reserved in proportion to their population.

Q18. How long does a Panchayat normally continue?

👉 5 years from the date of its first meeting.

PESA Act, 1996 (Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas Act)

Q19. Which Act extends Panchayat provisions to Scheduled Areas?

👉 PESA Act, 1996.

Q20. What is the main aim of the PESA Act?

👉 To extend the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution to the Fifth Schedule Areas (Scheduled Areas).

Q21. Name any 3 states to which PESA Act applies.

👉 Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand (also Odisha, Maharashtra, Himachal Pradesh, etc.).

Eleventh Schedule

Q22. What does the Eleventh Schedule deal with?

👉 It contains 29 subjects that can be distributed between the State Legislature and Panchayats.

Panchayati Raj – General Facts

Q1. When are elections to Panchayats held if the remainder of the term is less than 6 months?

👉 It is not necessary to hold elections in such a case.

Q2. What is the minimum age for contesting Panchayat elections?

👉 21 years.

Q3. Who can be entrusted to prepare and implement plans for economic development and social justice at the Panchayat level?

👉 Panchayats can be entrusted with such responsibilities.

State Election Commission (Article 243K)

Q4. Who conducts elections to the Panchayats?

👉 State Election Commission.

Q5. Who appoints the State Election Commissioner?

👉 The Governor of the State.

Q6. What is the tenure for holding Panchayat elections under the Constitution?

👉 Every 5 years (from 24 April 1993 onwards after the 73rd Amendment).

State Finance Commission (Article 243I)

Q7. When is the State Finance Commission constituted?

👉 Every 5 years, by the Governor, to review the financial position of Panchayats.

Q8. What is the role of the State Finance Commission?

👉 To make recommendations regarding distribution of financial resources between the State and Panchayats.

Historical Background of Panchayati Raj

Q9. Which was the first state to implement the Panchayati Raj system?

👉 Rajasthan (in 1959) was the first, followed by Andhra Pradesh.

Q10. Who inaugurated the first Panchayati Raj system in India and when?

👉 Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru on 2 October 1959 at Nagaur, Rajasthan.

Important Committees on Panchayati Raj (Pre–73rd Amendment)

Committee Focus / Recommendation Year

• Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Democratic decentralization – 3-tier PR system 1957
• Ashok Mehta Committee 2-tier system, district as base 1978
• G.V.K. Rao Committee Revitalization of PRIs, administrative aspects 1985
• L.M. Singhvi Committee Constitutional status to PRIs 1986
• V.N. Gadgil Committee Best Panchayat practices, planning 1988

Q11. Which committee recommended constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions?

👉 L.M. Singhvi Committee (1986).

Q12. Which committee is associated with the concept of a 2-tier system?

👉 Ashok Mehta Committee (1978).

Q13. Which committee is associated with “Democratic Decentralization” and a 3-tier system?

👉 Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957).

Municipalities (74th Amendment)

Q14. Which Constitutional Amendment gives constitutional status to Municipalities?

👉 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.

Q15. Articles 243P to 243ZG deal with which subject?

👉 Urban Local Governments (Municipalities).

Q16. What is the significance of Part IXA of the Constitution?

👉 It gives constitutional foundation to urban local self-government in India.

Types of Urban Local Bodies

Type Description

• Nagar Panchayat For areas in transition from rural to urban
• Municipal Council For smaller urban areas
• Municipal Corporation For larger urban areas

Q17. How are members of Municipalities elected?

👉 They are directly elected by the people.

Q18. Is reservation provided in municipalities?

👉 ✅ Yes, 1/3rd seats are reserved for women, and SC/ST reservation is based on population.

Eleventh Schedule – Important Subjects

Q19. How many subjects are listed in the Eleventh Schedule?

👉 29 subjects.

Q20. Name any 5 subjects included in the Eleventh Schedule.

👉 Agriculture, Rural housing, Drinking water, Women & child development, Education, Fisheries, Health & sanitation, Roads, etc.

Urban Planning Committees (74th Amendment)

Q1. Which two committees are constituted for preparing development plans for urban areas under the 74th Amendment?

• 1. District Planning Committee at the district level
• 2. Metropolitan Planning Committee at the metropolitan level

Q2. When are Ward Committees constituted in a municipality?

👉 When the population is 3 lakhs or more.

Inter-State Relations (Part XI)

Judicial & Adjudicatory Mechanisms

Q3. Which Article provides for the judicial determination of inter-state disputes?

👉 Article 131 – by the Supreme Court.

Q4. Which Article provides for Parliament to adjudicate water disputes between states?

👉 Article 262.

Q5. What tribunal has been set up under Article 262?

👉 Inter-State Water Disputes Tribunal.

Inter-State Council (Article 263)

Q6. Under which Article was the Inter-State Council established?

👉 Article 263.

Q7. When was the Inter-State Council constituted?

👉 28 May 1990, by a Presidential Order.

Q8. Who chairs the Inter-State Council?

👉 The Prime Minister.

Q9. Who are the members of the Inter-State Council?

👉 Chief Ministers of all States, Union Cabinet Ministers, and Administrators of Union Territories.

Q10. Which Commission recommended the setting up of a permanent Inter-State Council?

👉 Sarkaria Commission.

Q11. How often does the Inter-State Council meet?

👉 Thrice a year.

Zonal Councils

Q12. Under which Act were the Zonal Councils set up?

👉 States Reorganisation Act, 1956.

Q13. Who is the common Chairman of all Zonal Councils?

👉 The Union Home Minister.

Q14. How many Zonal Councils are there in India?

👉 5 Zonal Councils (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western, Southern).

Q15. Which areas are covered under the Eastern Zonal Council?

👉 Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal.

Q16. Which states are included in the North Eastern Council (separate from Zonal Councils)?

👉 Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura, Sikkim.

Planning Commission

Q17. Was the Planning Commission mentioned in the Constitution?

👉 ❌ No, it was not a constitutional or statutory body.

Q18. When was the Planning Commission set up?

👉 March 1950 by an executive resolution of the Government of India.

Q19. Who was the first Chairman of the Planning Commission?

👉 Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru.

Q20. Who was the first Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission?

👉 Gulzarilal Nanda.

Q21. What was the main function of the Planning Commission?

👉 To formulate Five Year Plans and ensure effective utilization of resources for economic development.

NITI Aayog

Q22. When was the NITI Aayog established?

👉 1 January 2015 (by a resolution of the Government of India).

Q23. What does NITI Aayog stand for?

👉 National Institution for Transforming India.

Q24. Who is the Chairman of NITI Aayog?

👉 The Prime Minister of India.

Q25. Who is the Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog?

👉 Appointed by the Prime Minister. (e.g., Arvind Panagariya was the first)

Q26. What is the composition of NITI Aayog?

• Prime Minister as Chairperson
• Chief Ministers of all States & UTs with Legislatures
• Lt. Governors of other UTs
• Full-time Vice-Chairman & Members
• Regional Councils

Q27. Is NITI Aayog a constitutional or statutory body?

👉 ❌ No, it is neither constitutional nor statutory; it is an executive body (think tank).

National Development Council (NDC)

Q28. When was the National Development Council established?

👉 6 August 1952.

Q29. Is the NDC a constitutional body?

👉 ❌ No, it is neither constitutional nor statutory.

Q30. Who are the members of the NDC?

👉 Prime Minister (Chairman), Union Ministers, Chief Ministers, and Administrators of UTs.

National Integration Council (NIC)

Q1. When was the National Integration Council (NIC) set up and what is its objective?

• Set up in 1962 (1st meeting in 1962 under PM Nehru).
• Objective: To combat communalism, casteism, regionalism, and language conflicts and promote national integration.

Q2. Who are the members of the NIC?

Union Ministers, Chief Ministers of States, political party leaders, public figures, and representatives of business, labour, media, and women’s organizations.

Finance Commission of India

Q3. Which article of the Constitution provides for Finance Commission?: Article 280 of the Constitution.

Q4. What are the main functions of the Finance Commission?

• Distribution of net tax proceeds between Union & States (Art. 270).
• Principles for grants-in-aid of states (Art. 275).
• Recommend measures to augment State Consolidated Fund to supplement resources of Panchayats & Municipalities (Art. 280(3)(bb) & (c))
• Any matter referred by the President in the interest of sound finance.

Q5. Who appoints the Finance Commission and what is its composition?

• Appointed by the President of India every 5 years.
• 1 Chairman + 4 other members.

Q6. What qualifications are prescribed for Finance Commission members?

Should have experience in public affairs, law, economics, finance, or administration.

At least one should be a High Court Judge.

Q7. Who was the chairman of the 15th Finance Commission (2017–2025)?

N.K. Singh.

Q8. First Finance Commission was constituted in which year and under whose chairmanship?

1951 under K.C. Neogy.

Emergency Provisions (Part XVIII, Art. 352–360)

Q9. Under which Article can a National Emergency be proclaimed?

Article 352 in case of:

• 1. War
• 2. External aggression
• 3. Armed rebellion

Q10. What is the procedure for proclaiming a National Emergency?

• Declared by the President on written recommendation of the Union Cabinet.
• Must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within 1 month.
• Valid for 6 months at a time; can be extended with approval.

Q11. What is the effect of National Emergency on Fundamental Rights?

• Article 358: Suspension of Article 19 rights automatically.
• Article 359: President can suspend right to move to courts for enforcement of Fundamental Rights (except Arts. 20 & 21 – these cannot be suspended even during emergency).

Q12. What is the maximum period for which a National Emergency can remain in force?

Indefinitely, if Parliament keeps approving it every 6 months.

Q13. When was the first National Emergency declared in India?

26 October 1962 on the ground of Chinese aggression.

National Integration Council (NIC)

Q1. Is NIC a constitutional body?

❌ No, it is a non-constitutional, non-statutory advisory body.

Q2. Who chairs the National Integration Council?

The Prime Minister of India.

Finance Commission

Q3. Under which Articles are Finance Commission functions provided?

Articles 270, 275, 280 & 281.

Q4. To whom does the Finance Commission submit its recommendations?

• To the President of India.
• The President lays it before Parliament along with an explanatory memorandum on action taken.

Q5. Can Finance Commission reports be binding on the Government?

❌ No, recommendations are advisory in nature (not binding).

Q6. List of some important Finance Commission Chairmen

• 1st (1951): K.C. Neogy
• 7th (1978–80): J.M. Shelat
• 10th (1995–2000): K.C. Pant
• 12th (2002–2007): C. Rangarajan
• 14th (2013–2015): Y.V. Reddy
• 15th (2017–2025): N.K. Singh

Q7. Can a member of Finance Commission be reappointed?

✅ Yes, members including Chairman are eligible for reappointment.

Q8. How long does Finance Commission hold office?

As specified by the President of India.

Emergency Provisions

Q9. What are the three types of Emergencies in India?

1. National Emergency (Art. 352) – war, external aggression, armed rebellion.

2. State Emergency (Art. 356) – failure of constitutional machinery in a state.

3. Financial Emergency (Art. 360) – threat to financial stability or credit.

Q10. What majority is required in Parliament to approve National Emergency?

Special majority = majority of total membership + 2/3rd present and voting.

Q11. What happens to Lok Sabha during National Emergency?

Lok Sabha’s normal term (5 years) can be extended by 1 year at a time, but not beyond 6 months after Emergency ends.

Q12. Who can challenge the validity of a Proclamation of Emergency?

The Supreme Court (judicial review available after 1978 44th Amendment).

Q13. What changes were made by the 44th Constitutional Amendment (1978) regarding Emergency?

• Replaced "internal disturbance" with armed rebellion.
• Required written recommendation of Union Cabinet for declaring Emergency.
• Fundamental Rights under Articles 20 & 21 cannot be suspended.

Q14. Which Fundamental Rights are suspended during Emergency?

• Art. 19 is automatically suspended.
• Other rights (except Art. 20 & 21) can be suspended under Art. 359 by President’s order.

Q15. How many times has National Emergency been declared in India?

3 times:

• 1. 1962–68 (China war)
• 2. 1971 (Pakistan war)
• 3. 1975–77 (Internal disturbance declared by Indira Gandhi – later removed by 44th Amendment).

Q16. What is Article 353 related to Emergency?

• Effect of proclamation of Emergency:
• Union executive power extends to giving directions to any State.
• Parliament gets power to make laws for whole or any part of India (even on State List subjects).

Q17. What is Article 354?

Provision regarding allocation of revenues between Union and States during Emergency.

Q18. What is Article 358 vs. Article 359 (difference)?

Art. 358: Suspension of Article 19 rights only (automatic)

Art. 359: President can suspend enforcement of other Fundamental Rights by order (except Arts. 20 & 21).

State Emergency / President’s Rule (Art. 356)

Q1. What is Article 356?

• Deals with failure of constitutional machinery in a state.
• President can assume functions of State Government if:
• State legislature is unable to function, OR
• Governance cannot be carried on as per Constitution.

Q2. What is President’s Rule also known as?: State Emergency or Constitutional Emergency.

Q3. How long can President’s Rule continue?: 

• Initially: 6 months.
• Can be extended: Maximum 3 years (with Parliamentary approval every 6 months).
• Beyond 1 year requires:
• National Emergency in operation OR
• EC certifies that elections cannot be held.

Q4. What happens to State Legislature during President’s Rule?

• Either dissolved or kept under suspension.
• State executive power is exercised by the President.

Q5. Who approves Proclamation of Art. 356?

Must be approved by both Houses of Parliament by simple majority within 2 months.

Financial Emergency (Art. 360)

Q6. When can Financial Emergency be declared?

If President believes financial stability or credit of India is threatened.

Q7. How is Financial Emergency approved?

Must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within 2 months by simple majority.

Q8. What are the effects of Financial Emergency?

1. Union can direct States regarding financial matters.

2. President can reduce salaries & allowances of all government servants, including judges.

3. President can reserve money bills & financial bills for Parliamentary consideration.

Q9. How many times has Financial Emergency been declared in India?

❌ Never.

Public Service Commissions (UPSC & SPSC) (Art. 315–323)

Q10. What does Article 315 provide?

Establishment of UPSC (Union), State PSC, and Joint PSC (if 2 or more states request).

Q11. Who appoints the members of UPSC and State PSC?

UPSC → Appointed by the President.

State PSC → Appointed by the Governor.

Q12. Who determines number of members and conditions of service?

By the President (UPSC/Joint PSC) and Governor (SPSC).

Q13. What is the term of office of PSC members?

6 years or till age of 65 years (UPSC) / 62 years (SPSC), whichever earlier.

Q14. What is the minimum experience required to become a PSC member?

Must have held office under Government of India/State for at least 10 years.

Q15. Can PSC members be reappointed?

✅ Yes, but only as Chairman of UPSC/SPSC or Chairman of another PSC.

❌ Cannot hold other offices under Government.

Q16. How can a member of UPSC/SPSC be removed?

• By the President on grounds:
• Insolvency,
• Engaged in paid employment outside duties,
• Infirmity of mind/body,
• Misbehavior (proved by Supreme Court inquiry).

Q17. Who decides on conditions of service of UPSC/SPSC members?: Cannot be varied to their disadvantage after appointment (Art. 318).

Election Commission (Art. 324–329)

Q18. What does Article 324 provide?

• Establishes Election Commission of India (ECI) to conduct elections to:
• Parliament, State Legislatures, President, Vice President.

Q19. What is the composition of Election Commission? Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) + other Election Commissioners (number fixed by President).

Q20. Who decides on disputes related to election of President/Vice President?: Supreme Court (Art. 71).

Q21. What is the minimum qualification to be a member of  Legislature?: Must be a citizen of India and satisfy conditions prescribed by Parliament.

State Emergency (Art. 356)

Financial Emergency (Art. 360)

Public Service Commissions (Art. 315–323)

Election Commission (Art. 324–329)

Chief Election Commissioner (CEC)

Q1. What is the tenure and age limit of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC)?: Tenure: 6 years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

Q2. How can the Chief Election Commissioner be removed?: Can only be removed like a Supreme Court judge, by Parliamentary impeachment on grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity

Q3. How can other Election Commissioners be removed?: On recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.

Q4. Who fixes the conditions of service of CEC and ECs?: Determined by the President of India.

Q5. Who was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India?: Sukumar Sen (1950–1958).

Q6. Name any two famous former Chief Election Commissioners.

• T.N. Seshan (1990–96) – known for electoral reforms.
• Sunil Arora (2018–2021) – conducted 2019 General Elections.

Functions & Powers of Election Commission (Art. 324)

Q7. What are the main functions of the Election Commission?

1. Superintendence, direction & control of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, President, and Vice President.

2. Preparation of electoral rolls and supervision of free & fair elections.

3. Allotment of symbols to political parties.

4. Recognition of political parties as national or state parties.

5. Tendering advice to President/Governor regarding disqualification of MPs/MLAs.

6. Issue of Model Code of Conduct and identity cards to voters.

Recognition of Political Parties

Q8. When is a party recognized as a National Party?

A party is recognized as a National Party if it fulfills any one of these:

1. Secures at least 6% votes in 4 or more states + 4 Lok Sabha seats, OR

2. Wins 2% of Lok Sabha seats (minimum 11 seats from 3 states), OR

3. Recognized as a State Party in 4 or more states.

Q9. When is a party recognized as a State Party?

If it fulfills any one of the following:

1. Secures 6% votes in State election + 2 Assembly seats, OR

2. Wins 3% seats or 3 seats (whichever greater) in State Assembly, OR

3. Wins 1 Lok Sabha seat from that State, OR

4. Recognized as a National Party but loses national status.

Delimitation Commission

Q10. What is Delimitation Commission and under which Act is it established?: It is a Boundary Commission set up by the Government of India under Delimitation Commission Act.

Q11. What is the main task of Delimitation Commission?: To redraw boundaries of Assembly and Lok Sabha constituencies based on the latest Census.

Q12. How many times has Delimitation been done in India?: 4 times → 1952, 1963, 1973, and 2002.

Q13. Who headed the last Delimitation Commission?: Justice Kuldip Singh (Retd. Judge of SC) in 2002.

Q14. Can the orders of the Delimitation Commission be challenged in a court of law?

❌ No, its orders have the force of law and cannot be challenged in any court.

Delimitation & Representation

Q1. The Constitution of India was specifically amended in 2002 to freeze delimitation of constituencies till when?

👉 Ans: Till the first census after 2026 (84th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2001).

Q2. On the basis of which census was the last delimitation done?

👉 Ans: 2001 Census.

Q3. Who are the members of the Delimitation Commission?

👉 Ans: Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India + Election Commissioners of all States & Union Territories.

Q4. How many Lok Sabha seats are reserved for SCs and STs after delimitation (2008)?

Ans: SC: 84

ST: 47

Unreserved: 412

Total = 543 seats.

Q5. Name the states where delimitation has not been carried out.

👉 Ans: Assam, Manipur, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, Jharkhand.

Official Languages

Q6. Which Article deals with official languages?

👉 Ans: Article 343 – Hindi in Devanagari script is the official language of the Union.

Q7. Which Act added Sindhi language to the Constitution?

👉 Ans: 21st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1967.

Q8. Which Act added Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali to the Constitution?

👉 Ans: 71st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.

Q9. Which Act added Maithili, Dogri, Bodo, and Santhali to the Constitution?

👉 Ans: 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.

Q10. When was the first Official Language Commission appointed and under whose chairmanship?

👉 Ans: 1955, under B.G. Kher.

Q11. Article 345 is related to what?

👉 Ans: Official language of each state & language for intra-state official transactions.

Name the classical languages of India and the year of recognition.

Tamil (2004)

Sanskrit (2005)

Telugu (2008)

Kannada (2008)

Malayalam (2013)

Odia (2014).

National Symbols

Q13. When was the National Flag adopted by the Constituent Assembly?

👉 Ans: 22 July 1947.

Q14. What is the ratio of length to width of the National Flag?

👉 Ans: 3:2.

Q15. When did the Flag Code of India come into effect?

👉 Ans: 26 January 2002.

Q16. When was the National Emblem adopted?

👉 Ans: 26 January 1950.

National Emblem

Q1. When was the State Emblem of India adopted?

👉 Ans: 26 January 1950.

Q2. The State Emblem of India is an adaptation of which sculpture?

👉 Ans: Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath.

Q3. How many lions are visible in the State Emblem of India?

👉 Ans: Three (the fourth is hidden from view).

Q4. What is inscribed below the abacus of the National Emblem?

👉 Ans: The words “Satyameva Jayate” (Truth Alone Triumphs) from Mundaka Upanishad, written in Devanagari script.

National Anthem

Q5. Who composed the National Anthem of India?

👉 Ans: Rabindranath Tagore.

Q6. What is the name of India’s National Anthem?

👉 Ans: Jana Gana Mana.

Q7. When was the National Anthem adopted by the Constituent Assembly?

👉 Ans: 24 January 1950.

Q8. When and where was it first sung?

👉 Ans: 27 December 1911, at the Calcutta Session of Indian National Congress.

Q9. Who composed the English translation of the National Anthem?

👉 Ans: Tagore himself in 1919 (titled Morning Song of India).

Q10. Who set the official musical score of the National Anthem?

👉 Ans: Captain Ram Singh Thakur (INA composer).

Q11. What is the duration of the full version of the National Anthem?

👉 Ans: 52 seconds.

Q12. What is the duration of the shorter version?

👉 Ans: 20 seconds.

National Song

Q13. What is the National Song of India?

👉 Ans: Vande Mataram.

Q14. Who composed the National Song?

👉 Ans: Bankim Chandra Chatterjee (in Anandamath).

Q15. When was Vande Mataram first sung at a political occasion?

👉 Ans: 1896 Session of Indian National Congress (Chairman: Rahimtulla Sayani).

Q16. Who composed the tune for Vande Mataram?

👉 Ans: Ravindra Nath Tagore (initially sung) and later popularized by other musicians.

Q17. Which part of Vande Mataram was adopted as the National Song?

👉 Ans: Only the first two stanzas.

Q18. What is the playing time of Vande Mataram?

👉 Ans: About 1 minute 5 seconds.

National Calendar

Q19. Which calendar is the National Calendar of India?

👉 Ans: Saka Calendar.

Q20. When was the National Calendar adopted?

👉 Ans: 22 March 1957 (Chaitra 1, 1879 Saka Era).

Q21. The Saka Calendar is based on which era?

👉 Ans: Saka Era (78 AD).

National Symbols

Q22. National Animal of India?

👉 Ans: Tiger (Panthera tigris).

Q23. National Bird of India?

👉 Ans: Indian Peacock (Pavo cristatus).

Q24. National Flower of India?

👉 Ans: Lotus (Nelumbo nucifera).

Q25. National Tree of India?

👉 Ans: Banyan Tree (Ficus benghalensis).

Q26. National Fruit of India?

👉 Ans: Mango (Mangifera indica).

Q27. National Aquatic Animal of India?

👉 Ans: Gangetic Dolphin (Platanista gangetica).

Important Constitutional Comments 

Q28. Who said, “Democracy is the government of the people, by the people, and for the people”?

👉 Ans: Abraham Lincoln.

Q29. Who said, “Rights are those conditions of social life without which no man can seek to be himself at his best”?

👉 Ans: Laski.

Q30. Who said, “Unitarity government is one in which all sovereignty and power are lodged in a single centre”?

👉 Ans: Dicey.

Q31. Who said, “Constitution is set of established rules, regulating government”?

👉 Ans: Bryce.

Q32. Who said, “Constitution is a system of fundamental political institutions”?

👉 Ans: Herman Finer.

Q33. Who said, “All rules which directly or indirectly affect the distribution or exercise of sovereign power in the state”?

👉 Ans: Dicey.

Q34. Who said, “Democracy postulates equality and freedom”?

👉 Ans: Lecock.

Q35. Who said, “Democracy substitutes the equality of all citizens in place of the rule of privileged classes”?

👉 Ans: John Stuart Mill.

Q36. Who said, “All inhabitants of a country have the right to election of representatives”?

👉 Ans: Montesquieu.

Q37. Who said, “When the legislative, executive, and judiciary powers are united in one, there is no liberty”?

👉 Ans: Montesquieu.

Q38. Who said, “The concentration of legislative, executive, and judiciary in the same hands is tyranny”?

👉 Ans: Jefferson.

Philosophical Quotes & Theories

Q1. Who is known as the "Father of the Idealistic Theory"?

👉 Ans: Immanuel Kant.

Q2. Who said “State is a march of God upon earth”?

👉 Ans: Hegel.

Q3. Who said “Though the king is a human being yet no one should hate him because he is God in the shape of man”?

👉 Ans: Manusmriti.

Q4. Who said “Man is born and everywhere he is in chains”?

👉 Ans: Rousseau.

Q5. Who is considered the first to attempt to differentiate the state from government (19th century)?

👉 Ans: John Locke.

Q6. Who is known as the father of political science?

👉 Ans: Niccolo Machiavelli.

Q7. T.H. Green’s concept of Idealism is known as what?

👉 Ans: Moderate Idealism

Ayodhya Dispute

Q8. When did the Supreme Court deliver the verdict on the Ayodhya dispute?

👉 Ans: 9 November 2019 (5-judge Constitution Bench, headed by CJI Ranjan Gogoi).

Q9. What was the decision of the Supreme Court on Ayodhya dispute?

👉 Ans: In favour of Ram temple at the disputed 2.77 acres land.

Q10. When was the foundation stone of Ram temple laid by the PM?

👉 Ans: 5 August 2020 at Ayodhya.

Triple Talaq Bill

Q11. When was the Triple Talaq Bill (Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019) passed?

👉 Ans: 30 July 2019 (Lok Sabha) & 30 July 2019 (Rajya Sabha approved).

Q12. What is the punishment under the Triple Talaq Law?

👉 Ans: Instant triple talaq is declared illegal and void → It is a criminal offence, punishable with imprisonment up to 3 years.

Constitutional Amendments

Q13. What does the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 relate to?

👉 Ans: Abolition of reserved seats for Anglo-Indians in Lok Sabha and State Assemblies (from 25 Jan 2020).

Q14. What does the 105th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2021 relate to?

👉 Ans: Restored the power of States to identify Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs).

Constituent Assembly & Constitution

Q15. When was the Constitution of India adopted?

👉 Ans: 26 November 1949.

Q16. India has which type of Constitution?

👉 Ans: Both Flexible and Rigid.

Q17. Name the three organs of Indian Government.

👉 Ans: Legislature, Executive, Judiciary.

Miscellaneous (Fundamental Rights & Others)

Q18. Which Article guarantees the “Right to Constitutional Remedies”?

👉 Ans: Article 32.

Q19. Who called Article 32 the “Heart & Soul of the Constitution”?

👉 Ans: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

Q20. The term “Fourth Estate” refers to what?

👉 Ans: Press/Media.

Q21. Who was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India?

👉 Ans: Sukumar Sen.

President of India (Very Important)

Q22. What is the minimum age required to be elected President of India?

👉 Ans: 35 years.

Q23. Who was the first President to get the Bharat Ratna Award?

👉 Ans: Dr. S. Radhakrishnan (1954).

Q24. How is the Chief Justice of India appointed?

👉 Ans: By the President of India.

Q25. To whom does the President of India submit his resignation?

👉 Ans: Vice President of India.

Q26. Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court of India?

👉 Ans: President of India.

Q27. Who is the Supreme Commander of India’s Defence Forces?

👉 Ans: President of India.

Q28. Who appoints the judges of the High Courts?

👉 Ans: President of India.

Q29. How many members of Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President?

👉 Ans: 12 members (from fields of art, literature, science, social service).

Q30. Who appoints the Attorney General of India?

👉 Ans: President of India.

Q31. Who appoints and dismisses the Speaker pro tem of Lok Sabha?

👉 Ans: President of India.

Q32. How many members are there in the Estimates Committee?

👉 Ans: 30 members, all from Lok Sabha.

Q33. What is the supreme law-making institution in India?

👉 Ans: Parliament of India.