CONCOR Management Trainee 2026 – Grand Final Mock Test 6
CONCOR Management Trainee 2026 – Grand Final Mock Test 6
Management Trainee (Commercial & Operations) | Full-Length Mock Test 6 of 6
Welcome to the final full-length mock test in our CONCOR Management Trainee 2026 preparation series.
This paper contains 100 fresh, original practice MCQs covering Professional Knowledge, Quantitative Aptitude, General Knowledge, Reasoning and English Language.
Professional Knowledge combines major topics from logistics management, supply chain management, rail and road freight, container operations, EXIM, warehousing, procurement, commercial operations, information systems and logistics marketing.
Exam instructions
- Total questions: 100
- Total marks: 100
- Time: 90 minutes
- Correct answer: +1
- Incorrect answer: −0.25
- Unattempted: 0
- Five answer options per question
- One best answer for each question
Important: This is independent exam-oriented practice content, not an official CONCOR question paper or verified PYQ collection.
SECTION A: PROFESSIONAL KNOWLEDGE
50 Questions | 50 Marks
Logistics and Supply Chain Management
Q1. A company reduces its transportation expense but increases its average inventory and warehouse costs by a greater amount. Which principle has it failed to apply?
A. Market segmentation
B. Total logistics cost approach
C. Financial leverage
D. Product differentiation
E. Freight insurance
Q2. A company receives actual customer demand information daily but shares it with suppliers only once a month. Which supply chain problem is this delay most likely to aggravate?
A. Product standardisation
B. Inventory identification
C. Demand information distortion
D. Container safety certification
E. Warehouse slot numbering
Q3. Which of the following best describes the customer order decoupling point?
A. The point where a warehouse becomes a Customs port
B. The stage separating forecast-driven activities from activities triggered by actual customer orders
C. The point where all inventory is permanently removed
D. The location where transport insurance begins automatically
E. The stage where suppliers stop receiving purchase orders
Q4. A manufacturer orders components only after receiving confirmed customer orders, but suppliers require long replenishment lead times. Which operational risk is most likely?
A. Guaranteed elimination of delays
B. Zero requirement for supplier coordination
C. Automatic increase in production capacity
D. Longer customer order fulfilment lead times
E. Elimination of material shortages
Q5. Which statement correctly distinguishes logistics from broader Supply Chain Management?
A. Logistics includes every business function, whereas SCM covers transportation only
B. SCM includes cross-organisational coordination of sourcing, production and logistics
C. SCM excludes suppliers
D. Logistics excludes storage and distribution
E. Both are limited exclusively to international shipping
Procurement, Inventory and Material Management
Q6. A procurement team evaluates the supplier's purchase price, maintenance costs, spare-part requirements and disposal costs. Which concept is being applied?
A. Economic Order Quantity
B. Market Penetration
C. Total Cost of Ownership
D. Safety Stock
E. Demand Elasticity
Q7. Which inventory classification is most appropriate for categorising stock by the predictability or variation of demand?
A. HML
B. VED
C. ABC
D. XYZ
E. SDE
Q8. A maintenance component is rarely used but must be available because its absence can stop container-handling operations. Which inventory classification should be given special importance?
A. Unit price
B. Criticality
C. Product colour
D. Packaging dimensions
E. Average sales discount
Q9. In the basic EOQ model, if annual holding cost per unit becomes four times as large while demand and ordering cost remain constant, EOQ will:
A. Double
B. Become four times as large
C. Become half
D. Remain unchanged
E. Become one-fourth
Q10. Daily demand is 75 units. Lead time is 8 days, and safety stock is 150 units. What is the reorder point under the simple constant-demand model?
A. 600 units
B. 650 units
C. 700 units
D. 750 units
E. 800 units
Q11. Which stock-related cost is most directly associated with lost sales or interrupted production when required materials are unavailable?
A. Ordering cost
B. Warehouse rent
C. Inventory holding cost
D. Stockout cost
E. Customs valuation cost
Q12. What is the main purpose of a Material Requirements Planning system?
A. Determine components and purchase or production timing from planned manufacturing requirements
B. Select railway passenger seats
C. Calculate only the customer retention rate
D. Estimate national exports
E. Schedule cargo vessel docking independently of production
Q13. A supplier delivers 450 units against a purchase order for 500 units. Under a quantity-only in-full measure, what is the supply fulfilment percentage?
A. 80%
B. 85%
C. 88%
D. 90%
E. 95%
Warehousing and Material Handling
Q14. Which warehouse storage method assigns available locations dynamically instead of reserving a permanent location for each SKU?
A. Fixed-location storage
B. Random or dynamic-location storage
C. Exclusive bonded storage
D. Cross-border shipping
E. Product remanufacturing
Q15. An e-commerce warehouse has a high number of small customer orders with repeated demand for the same items. Which picking method can reduce repeated travel by collecting goods for several orders together?
A. Annual physical stocktaking
B. Container destuffing
C. Batch picking
D. Freight consolidation at port
E. Customs examination
Q16. Which equipment is normally more suitable for moving palletised goods horizontally over short warehouse distances without high-level lifting?
A. Railway locomotive
B. Container gantry crane
C. Ship-to-shore crane
D. Manual pallet truck
E. Aircraft loader
Q17. Which KPI directly measures the percentage of warehouse orders dispatched without picking or quantity errors, according to a defined order-accuracy method?
A. Inventory carrying cost
B. Order accuracy
C. Freight tonne-kilometres
D. Axle load
E. Days payable outstanding
Q18. A warehouse handles 1,440 cartons in an 8-hour shift using six workers who each work eight hours. What is the productivity in cartons per labour-hour?
A. 20
B. 24
C. 28
D. 30
E. 36
Rail Freight and Container Terminal Operations
Q19. A railway line has an available freight capacity of 36 train paths per day, and 27 are used. What is its freight train-path utilisation?
A. 60%
B. 65%
C. 70%
D. 75%
E. 80%
Q20. What is the principal function of railway interlocking?
A. To calculate freight insurance premiums
B. To coordinate points and signals to prevent conflicting train movements
C. To determine international container tariffs
D. To issue cargo invoices
E. To measure warehouse stock accuracy
Q21. A railway siding is most directly useful for:
A. Allowing goods to be loaded, unloaded or handled through a track connected to the railway system
B. Replacing Customs import rules
C. Providing air cargo security screening
D. Manufacturing shipping containers
E. Calculating a customer's credit score
Q22. What is the main commercial benefit of reducing empty wagon repositioning distances?
A. Increasing unnecessary fuel consumption
B. Decreasing freight capacity automatically
C. Reducing non-revenue movement and relevant operating costs
D. Eliminating wagon inspections
E. Avoiding all track maintenance
Q23. A terminal operates three container-handling machines, each capable of 15 lifts per hour. Assuming all run simultaneously without delays, how many lifts can they complete in four hours?
A. 120
B. 150
C. 160
D. 170
E. 180
Q24. Which container handling practice reduces the risk of incorrectly releasing cargo?
A. Ignoring the consignee's release documents
B. Checking container number, release authorisation and gate records
C. Removing container identification labels
D. Allowing release solely on verbal instruction
E. Disabling the terminal operating system
Q25. Why are freight train loading plans required to consider weight distribution?
A. To improve passenger seating
B. To eliminate all container documentation
C. To change freight commodity classifications
D. To ensure loading remains compatible with equipment and operational limits
E. To determine the Customs exchange rate
Q26. Which statement best explains the role of a Container Freight Station?
A. It is an exclusively passenger-related railway facility
B. It supports appropriate container cargo handling, consolidation and deconsolidation
C. It is responsible for setting national monetary policy
D. It manufactures all freight containers
E. It can never handle export cargo
Q27. An inland terminal reports a daily throughput of 240 TEU and average container dwell time of three days. Under stable conditions, what average container inventory does Little's Law imply, measured in TEU?
A. 240
B. 480
C. 600
D. 720
E. 960
Multimodal Transport, Ports and EXIM
Q28. Which statement is correct about an intermodal container movement?
A. The cargo must be unpacked during each transfer
B. Only one transport mode is allowed
C. Cargo remains in the same loading unit while transport modes change
D. The shipment must use air freight
E. International Customs rules never apply
Q29. Which party is usually the consignor in a cargo shipment?
A. The sending party
B. The final recipient
C. The Customs examining officer
D. The container equipment manufacturer
E. The warehouse auditor
Q30. Which Incoterms 2020 rule specifically requires the seller to deliver goods unloaded at the named destination place?
A. EXW
B. CPT
C. FOB
D. FCA
E. DPU
Q31. Under which Incoterms 2020 rule does the seller generally have responsibility for import clearance and applicable import duties as part of the delivery obligations?
A. EXW
B. FAS
C. FOB
D. DDP
E. FCA
Q32. What is the primary difference between a Bill of Entry and a Shipping Bill in Indian Customs procedures?
A. Both are used only for domestic road transport
B. Bill of Entry is used for import declarations; Shipping Bill for export declarations
C. Bill of Entry is an airline passenger document
D. Shipping Bill is a warehouse stock card
E. Both are used only for rail passenger movements
Q33. Which document usually contains the commercial sale value, buyer, seller and description of goods?
A. Container Equipment Interchange Receipt
B. Railway Wagon Inspection Sheet
C. Commercial Invoice
D. Gate Appointment Slip
E. Forklift Maintenance Record
Q34. Which document generally identifies the origin of internationally traded goods for relevant Customs or trade-agreement purposes?
A. Packing List
B. Freight Quotation
C. Purchase Requisition
D. Certificate of Origin
E. Warehouse Picking List
Q35. A shipment is charged at ₹1,800 per revenue tonne under a W/M tariff. Cargo weight is 18 metric tonnes and volume is 25 m³. The tariff charges whichever is greater. What is the freight charge?
A. ₹32,400
B. ₹36,000
C. ₹40,500
D. ₹42,000
E. ₹45,000
Q36. Which trade document is ordinarily associated with carriage of goods by air?
A. Sea Waybill
B. Air Waybill
C. Railway Receipt
D. Shipping Bill
E. Bill of Entry
Commercial Operations and Logistics Marketing
Q37. Which financial measure is most useful for estimating how long a logistics company takes to collect money from customers?
A. EOQ
B. DIO
C. DSO
D. OTIF
E. FEFO
Q38. A freight customer generates ₹6,00,000 in revenue. Relevant variable service costs are ₹4,20,000. What is the contribution margin percentage?
A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 28%
D. 30%
E. 35%
Q39. A freight company wants a 20% margin on selling price for a service whose entire relevant cost base is ₹1,20,000. What should be the selling price?
A. ₹1,35,000
B. ₹1,40,000
C. ₹1,44,000
D. ₹1,48,000
E. ₹1,50,000
Q40. What is the key purpose of a logistics customer Service Level Agreement?
A. Defining measurable service requirements and responsibilities
B. Eliminating the need to monitor performance
C. Replacing all freight regulations
D. Ensuring every shipment is free of charge
E. Determining the selling price of imported goods exclusively
Q41. A sales representative offers refrigerated transportation to a customer who already uses the company for dry cargo. This is an example of:
A. Price skimming
B. Cross-selling
C. Supplier integration
D. Inventory write-off
E. Reverse auction
Q42. A sales team has 40 qualified leads and converts eight into paying customers. What is the lead-to-customer conversion rate?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%
E. 30%
Q43. Which situation most clearly represents a B2B service differentiation strategy?
A. Promising services the company cannot deliver
B. Increasing invoice errors
C. Refusing to discuss customer needs
D. Offering real-time container visibility and a dedicated account manager
E. Eliminating after-sales support
Logistics Information Systems, Quality and Risk
Q44. Which system is most directly used to plan and optimise freight transportation routes and carrier assignments?
A. CRM
B. WMS
C. TMS
D. HRMS
E. POS
Q45. What does EDI primarily facilitate?
A. Electronic exchange of structured business documents between compatible systems
B. Refrigeration of cargo through a terminal
C. Physical lifting of freight containers
D. Calibration of railway axle loads
E. Manufacture of transport vehicles
Q46. Which technology can provide cargo temperature monitoring and automatically issue alerts when limits are exceeded?
A. Paper visitor register
B. Fixed annual price list
C. Manual financial ledger
D. Connected sensors with an alerting system
E. Freight tariff card only
Q47. In Six Sigma, which DMAIC phase focuses on implementing and testing identified process improvements?
A. Define
B. Measure
C. Analyse
D. Improve
E. Control
Q48. A freight operator experiences repeated delays due to a single road route being blocked. Which is the most appropriate risk mitigation measure?
A. Ignore future route closures
B. Eliminate all tracking technology
C. Create viable alternate routing arrangements
D. Increase dependence on that single road
E. Stop communicating with customers
Q49. What is the main objective of reverse logistics?
A. Carrying cargo exclusively backwards by truck
B. Managing returns and appropriate product recovery, reuse or disposal
C. Eliminating all outbound transportation
D. Issuing a new export tariff
E. Replacing inventory control with accounting entries
Q50. A logistics manager must choose between a cheaper route with unpredictable delays and a slightly costlier route with reliable delivery. Which decision approach is best?
A. Select the cheapest quoted rate without considering service risk
B. Choose whichever route has the longest distance
C. Ignore customer delivery commitments
D. Evaluate total expected cost, delivery reliability and customer requirements
E. Select the route with more advertisements
SECTION B: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
15 Questions | 15 Marks
Q51. A sum of ₹18,000 is invested at 10% compound interest per annum, compounded annually. What is the amount after two years?
A. ₹20,800
B. ₹21,600
C. ₹21,780
D. ₹22,000
E. ₹22,180
Q52. A trader buys 80 units for ₹400 each and sells all units for ₹460 each. What is the overall profit percentage?
A. 10%
B. 12%
C. 15%
D. 18%
E. 20%
Q53. A and B can finish a job in 16 days and 24 days respectively. What fraction of the job can they finish together in six days?
A. 1/2
B. 5/8
C. 2/3
D. 3/4
E. 7/8
Q54. A 150-metre train travels at 54 km/h. How long does it take to cross a 300-metre platform completely?
A. 20 seconds
B. 24 seconds
C. 27 seconds
D. 30 seconds
E. 36 seconds
Q55. The average of nine numbers is 42. If an additional number 62 is included, what is the new average?
A. 43
B. 44
C. 45
D. 46
E. 47
Q56. The ratio of A's and B's salaries is 5:8. If B earns ₹18,000 more than A, what is A's salary?
A. ₹24,000
B. ₹27,000
C. ₹30,000
D. ₹32,000
E. ₹35,000
Q57. A container vehicle covers 180 km at 45 km/h and 120 km at 60 km/h. What is the average speed for the whole journey?
A. 45 km/h
B. 48 km/h
C. 50 km/h
D. 52 km/h
E. 54 km/h
Q58. Two successive discounts of 15% and 10% are applied to a marked price of ₹4,000. What is the final selling price?
A. ₹3,000
B. ₹3,040
C. ₹3,060
D. ₹3,100
E. ₹3,200
Q59. A bag contains 7 red, 5 blue and 8 green balls. What is the probability of selecting a ball that is not green?
A. 2/5
B. 1/2
C. 3/5
D. 7/10
E. 4/5
Q60. If x² − 11x + 30 = 0, what is the larger root?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 10
Q61. A rectangular warehouse has a perimeter of 140 metres. Its length is 10 metres greater than its breadth. What is its area?
A. 1,000 m²
B. 1,100 m²
C. 1,200 m²
D. 1,300 m²
E. 1,400 m²
Q62. Three machines manufacture 540 units in six hours. At the same rate, how many units will five identical machines manufacture in eight hours?
A. 900
B. 1,000
C. 1,100
D. 1,200
E. 1,350
Q63. The simple interest earned on a sum for four years at 7.5% per annum is ₹3,600. What is the principal?
A. ₹10,000
B. ₹11,000
C. ₹12,000
D. ₹13,000
E. ₹14,000
Q64. A logistics company's revenue increases from ₹25 lakh to ₹31 lakh. What is the percentage increase?
A. 20%
B. 22%
C. 24%
D. 25%
E. 28%
Q65. A vessel carries 60 containers, of which 24 are standard 20-foot and 36 are standard 40-foot containers. What is their total TEU equivalent?
A. 84 TEU
B. 90 TEU
C. 92 TEU
D. 96 TEU
E. 108 TEU
SECTION C: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE & AWARENESS
15 Questions | 15 Marks
Q66. Which city is the headquarters of the South Eastern Railway zone?
A. Ranchi
B. Kolkata
C. Bhubaneswar
D. Patna
E. Guwahati
Q67. In which year was the Reserve Bank of India established?
A. 1925
B. 1930
C. 1935
D. 1947
E. 1950
Q68. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of the Election Commission?
A. Article 280
B. Article 300A
C. Article 312
D. Article 324
E. Article 356
Q69. Who was the first woman President of India?
A. Indira Gandhi
B. Pratibha Patil
C. Sarojini Naidu
D. Droupadi Murmu
E. Sucheta Kripalani
Q70. The ancient Harappan civilisation is associated with which major historical period?
A. Palaeolithic Age
B. Neolithic Age only
C. Bronze Age
D. Early Medieval Period
E. Modern Period
Q71. Which freedom movement followed the Rowlatt Act and Jallianwala Bagh massacre and was formally launched nationally in 1920?
A. Quit India Movement
B. Non-Cooperation Movement
C. Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930
D. Swadeshi Movement of 1905
E. Tebhaga Movement
Q72. Which of the following states shares a land border with Bangladesh?
A. Rajasthan
B. Punjab
C. Tripura
D. Maharashtra
E. Himachal Pradesh
Q73. What is the SI unit of frequency?
A. Newton
B. Hertz
C. Pascal
D. Joule
E. Coulomb
Q74. The pH value of a neutral aqueous solution at 25°C is approximately:
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9
E. 11
Q75. Which blood component is primarily responsible for oxygen transport?
A. Platelets
B. Plasma proteins alone
C. Red blood cells
D. White blood cells
E. Lymph
Q76. Which ministry of the Government of India is responsible for the PM GatiShakti National Master Plan's nodal coordination through DPIIT?
A. Ministry of Education
B. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
C. Ministry of External Affairs
D. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
E. Ministry of Culture
Q77. Which of the following is a renewable energy source?
A. Coal
B. Diesel
C. Natural gas
D. Solar energy
E. Petroleum coke
Q78. Which financial institution primarily provides refinance and development support for agriculture and rural development in India?
A. NABARD
B. SEBI
C. IRDAI
D. EXIM Bank exclusively
E. CCI
Q79. Which Indian space mission successfully achieved a soft landing near the Moon's south polar region in August 2023?
A. Chandrayaan-1
B. Chandrayaan-2
C. Chandrayaan-3
D. Mangalyaan
E. Aditya-L1
Q80. What does NITI stand for in NITI Aayog?
A. National Institute for Trade and Industry
B. National Institution for Transforming India
C. National Investment and Taxation Initiative
D. National Infrastructure Technology Institute
E. National Industrial Training Institution
SECTION D: REASONING ABILITY
10 Questions | 10 Marks
Q81. Find the next term in the series:
6, 13, 27, 55, 111, ?
A. 219
B. 221
C. 223
D. 225
E. 227
Q82. In a certain code, each letter is shifted two places backward in the alphabet, with A changing to Y and B to Z. How is CARGO coded?
A. AYREM
B. AYPEN
C. AZPEM
D. AYPEM
E. BYPEM
Q83. A person walks 7 km south, then 24 km east. What is the shortest distance from the starting point?
A. 17 km
B. 24 km
C. 25 km
D. 26 km
E. 31 km
Q84. A man says, "The woman in the photograph is my wife's mother's only daughter." His wife has no sisters. Who is the woman?
A. His mother
B. His sister
C. His daughter
D. His wife
E. His aunt
Q85. Statements: Some ships are vessels. All vessels are transport units. Which conclusion necessarily follows?
A. Every transport unit is a ship
B. Some ships are transport units
C. Every ship is a vessel
D. No vessel is a ship
E. All transport units are vessels
Q86. Five persons A, B, C, D and E are seated in a row facing north. C sits at the extreme left. A sits immediately to the right of C. E sits immediately to the right of A. B sits immediately to the right of E. Who sits in the middle?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Q87. Select the number that does not belong to the group of perfect squares.
A. 81
B. 100
C. 121
D. 144
E. 150
Q88. If A=1, B=2, ..., Z=26, what is the sum of the letters in RAILWAY?
A. 85
B. 86
C. 88
D. 89
E. 91
Q89. In a competition with 75 participants, Riya ranks 28th from the top. What is her rank from the bottom?
A. 46th
B. 47th
C. 48th
D. 49th
E. 50th
Q90. If 1 June falls on a Monday, what day will 1 August of the same year fall on?
A. Friday
B. Saturday
C. Sunday
D. Monday
E. Tuesday
SECTION E: ENGLISH LANGUAGE
10 Questions | 10 Marks
Q91. Choose the synonym of Feasible.
A. Impossible
B. Impractical
C. Viable
D. Unrealistic
E. Unachievable
Q92. Choose the antonym of Ambiguous.
A. Unclear
B. Vague
C. Doubtful
D. Explicit
E. Uncertain
Q93. Fill in the blank:
The shipment would have reached the destination on time if the truck ___ down.
A. does not break
B. had not broken
C. has not broken
D. will not break
E. is not breaking
Q94. Choose the grammatically correct sentence.
A. The number of pending orders are increasing.
B. The number of pending orders have increased yesterday.
C. The number of pending orders is increasing.
D. The number of pending orders were increasing now.
E. The number of pending orders be increasing.
Q95. Select the correct passive voice:
"They are reviewing the contract."
A. The contract has reviewing.
B. The contract is being reviewed.
C. The contract was being review.
D. The contract being reviewed.
E. The contract is reviewed yesterday.
Q96. Choose the correctly spelled word.
A. Committment
B. Commitement
C. Comitment
D. Commitment
E. Commitmant
Q97. Fill in the blank:
The company is committed ___ maintaining high service standards.
A. with
B. at
C. to
D. for
E. on
Q98. Choose the correct indirect speech:
The manager said to the employees, "Please complete the report today."
A. The manager requested the employees to complete the report that day.
B. The manager said the employees please complete the report today.
C. The manager told that complete the report that day.
D. The manager asked that employees completed the report yesterday.
E. The manager requested employees completing the report tomorrow.
Q99. What does the idiom "on the right track" mean?
A. Travelling on a railway only
B. Following a suitable course towards achieving a goal
C. Delaying work unnecessarily
D. Starting a dispute
E. Avoiding responsibility
Q100. Choose the correct sentence.
A. No sooner the goods arrived than unloading began.
B. No sooner had the goods arrived when unloading began.
C. No sooner had the goods arrived than unloading began.
D. No sooner the goods had arrived than unloading began.
E. No sooner did the goods arrived than unloading began.
CONCOR Management Trainee 2026 – Grand Final Mock Test 6 Answer Key & Solutions
Final Full-Length Mock | 100 Questions | 100 Marks
Check your answers only after attempting the complete question paper.
Section A: Professional Knowledge (Q1–50)
Q1. Correct Answer: B – Total Logistics Cost Approach
Reducing one component of logistics cost is not necessarily beneficial if other costs increase by a larger amount. The total logistics cost approach considers transportation, inventory, warehousing, handling and service requirements together.
Q2. Correct Answer: C – Demand Information Distortion
Delays in communicating customer demand can lead to outdated replenishment decisions, order batching and amplified demand fluctuations across the supply chain.
Q3. Correct Answer: B – Customer Order Decoupling Point
The decoupling point separates operations driven by forecasts from operations triggered by actual customer orders.
Q4. Correct Answer: D – Longer Customer Order Fulfilment Lead Times
If components are purchased only after confirmed orders and suppliers require long lead times, the customer may face extended fulfilment delays.
Q5. Correct Answer: B – Broader SCM Scope
Supply Chain Management includes sourcing, procurement, conversion, logistics and coordination among organisations. Logistics is an important component of SCM.
Q6. Correct Answer: C – Total Cost of Ownership
TCO considers relevant acquisition, operation, maintenance and end-of-life expenses rather than only the purchase price.
Q7. Correct Answer: D – XYZ Analysis
XYZ classification is commonly used to group items based on demand variability or predictability. It can complement ABC classification.
Q8. Correct Answer: B – Criticality
Criticality-based methods such as VED help identify items whose unavailability may cause serious operational disruption, even when their financial value or consumption is low.
Q9. Correct Answer: C – Half
EOQ = √(2DS/H).
If holding cost becomes four times:
New EOQ = Old EOQ × √(1/4)
= Half the original EOQ.
Q10. Correct Answer: D – 750 Units
Reorder Point = Average Daily Demand × Lead Time + Safety Stock
= 75 × 8 + 150
= 600 + 150
= 750 units.
Q11. Correct Answer: D – Stockout Cost
A stockout can cause lost sales, production stoppages, emergency procurement and customer-service failures.
Q12. Correct Answer: A – Material Requirements Planning
MRP calculates the timing and quantities of components required, using production plans, bills of materials and inventory information.
Q13. Correct Answer: D – 90%
Fulfilment Percentage = (450 ÷ 500) × 100
= 90%.
Q14. Correct Answer: B – Dynamic Storage
Dynamic or random-location storage assigns available positions based on warehouse rules rather than maintaining a permanent exclusive slot for every SKU.
Q15. Correct Answer: C – Batch Picking
Batch picking collects items for multiple orders together and can reduce repeated travel, particularly for frequently ordered SKUs.
Q16. Correct Answer: D – Manual Pallet Truck
Manual pallet trucks are suitable for moving compatible palletised loads horizontally over relatively short distances.
Q17. Correct Answer: B – Order Accuracy
Order accuracy measures the proportion of orders completed correctly under the specified accuracy criteria.
Q18. Correct Answer: D – 30 Cartons per Labour-Hour
Total Labour Hours = 6 × 8 = 48.
Productivity = 1,440 ÷ 48
= 30 cartons per labour-hour.
Q19. Correct Answer: D – 75%
Train-Path Utilisation = (27 ÷ 36) × 100
= 75%.
Q20. Correct Answer: B – Interlocking
Railway interlocking ensures controlled relationships between points and signals to prevent conflicting train routes.
Q21. Correct Answer: A – Railway Siding
Sidings enable specified freight handling, industrial access, loading, unloading or other railway operations.
Q22. Correct Answer: C – Reduced Non-Revenue Movement
Shorter empty repositioning distances can reduce fuel, crew and equipment-related operating costs while improving availability.
Q23. Correct Answer: E – 180 Lifts
Lifts per hour = 3 × 15 = 45.
In four hours:
45 × 4 = 180 lifts.
Q24. Correct Answer: B – Verification of Release and Identification
Container numbers, gate records and valid release authorisations help ensure the correct cargo is released to the entitled party.
Q25. Correct Answer: D – Safe Weight Distribution
Loading plans must comply with equipment specifications, axle-load requirements and applicable operating limits.
Q26. Correct Answer: B – Container Freight Station
A CFS supports cargo handling and related container activities such as stuffing, destuffing, consolidation and deconsolidation.
Q27. Correct Answer: D – 720 TEU
Under steady-state conditions:
Average Inventory = Throughput Rate × Dwell Time
= 240 × 3
= 720 TEU.
Q28. Correct Answer: C – Same Loading Unit Across Modes
Intermodal transport retains the cargo in the same container or other loading unit while the transport mode changes.
Q29. Correct Answer: A – Sending Party
The consignor is the person or organisation sending the goods under a consignment arrangement.
Q30. Correct Answer: E – DPU
Under Incoterms 2020, DPU means Delivered at Place Unloaded. The seller delivers the goods unloaded at the named place.
Q31. Correct Answer: D – DDP
Delivered Duty Paid generally places substantial destination and import-clearance obligations on the seller, subject to the named place and applicable legal requirements.
Q32. Correct Answer: B – Import vs Export Declaration
Bill of Entry is used in applicable Indian Customs import procedures, while Shipping Bill is used for export declarations.
Q33. Correct Answer: C – Commercial Invoice
A commercial invoice contains relevant buyer, seller, goods, pricing and transaction information.
Q34. Correct Answer: D – Certificate of Origin
A Certificate of Origin documents the origin of goods under applicable trade and Customs requirements.
Q35. Correct Answer: E – ₹45,000
Weight = 18 metric tonnes.
Measurement = 25 cubic metres.
Chargeable quantity = Greater of 18 and 25 = 25 revenue tonnes.
Freight = 25 × ₹1,800
= ₹45,000.
Q36. Correct Answer: B – Air Waybill
An Air Waybill is associated with the carriage of goods by air and is generally non-negotiable.
Q37. Correct Answer: C – DSO
Days Sales Outstanding estimates the average collection period for accounts receivable under the applicable calculation method.
Q38. Correct Answer: D – 30%
Contribution = ₹6,00,000 − ₹4,20,000
= ₹1,80,000.
Contribution Margin = 1,80,000 ÷ 6,00,000 × 100
= 30%.
Q39. Correct Answer: E – ₹1,50,000
Selling Price = Cost ÷ (1 − Required Margin)
= ₹1,20,000 ÷ 0.80
= ₹1,50,000.
Q40. Correct Answer: A – Measurable Service Commitments
SLAs specify agreed service expectations, measurement criteria and responsibilities between relevant parties.
Q41. Correct Answer: B – Cross-Selling
Cross-selling means offering an additional relevant product or service to an existing customer.
Q42. Correct Answer: C – 20%
Conversion Rate = Converted Leads ÷ Qualified Leads × 100
= 8 ÷ 40 × 100
= 20%.
Q43. Correct Answer: D – Service Differentiation
Distinctive service features such as shipment visibility and dedicated account management can differentiate a logistics company from competitors.
Q44. Correct Answer: C – TMS
A Transportation Management System supports carrier selection, route planning, shipment execution and transport monitoring.
Q45. Correct Answer: A – Electronic Data Interchange
EDI supports the electronic transmission of standardised business information between compatible systems.
Q46. Correct Answer: D – Connected Temperature Sensors
Network-connected sensors can monitor shipment conditions and generate alerts when set thresholds are exceeded.
Q47. Correct Answer: D – Improve
The DMAIC Improvement phase involves designing, implementing and assessing solutions for identified process problems.
Q48. Correct Answer: C – Alternative Routing
Identifying suitable backup routes reduces dependence on a single vulnerable transport corridor.
Q49. Correct Answer: B – Reverse Logistics
Reverse Logistics manages returns and recovery activities, including repair, reuse, recycling and appropriate disposal.
Q50. Correct Answer: D – Total Cost and Reliability Evaluation
A suitable logistics decision balances quoted costs against reliability, potential delays, customer requirements and other relevant risks.
Section B: Quantitative Aptitude (Q51–65)
Q51. Correct Answer: C – ₹21,780
Compound Amount:
A = P(1 + r/100)²
= 18,000 × 1.10²
= 18,000 × 1.21
= ₹21,780.
Q52. Correct Answer: C – 15%
Total Cost = 80 × 400 = ₹32,000.
Total Revenue = 80 × 460 = ₹36,800.
Profit = ₹4,800.
Profit Percentage = 4,800 ÷ 32,000 × 100
= 15%.
Q53. Correct Answer: B – 5/8
Combined daily work:
1/16 + 1/24
= 3/48 + 2/48
= 5/48.
In six days:
6 × 5/48 = 30/48
= 5/8.
Q54. Correct Answer: D – 30 Seconds
Speed = 54 × 5/18 = 15 m/s.
Distance to cross platform completely:
150 + 300 = 450 m.
Time = 450 ÷ 15
= 30 seconds.
Q55. Correct Answer: B – 44
Sum of nine numbers:
9 × 42 = 378.
Add 62:
378 + 62 = 440.
New Average = 440 ÷ 10
= 44.
Q56. Correct Answer: C – ₹30,000
Salary ratio = 5:8.
Difference = 3 parts = ₹18,000.
One part = ₹6,000.
A's salary = 5 × 6,000
= ₹30,000.
Q57. Correct Answer: C – 50 km/h
Time for first 180 km = 180/45 = 4 hours.
Time for next 120 km = 120/60 = 2 hours.
Total Distance = 300 km.
Total Time = 6 hours.
Average Speed = 300/6
= 50 km/h.
Q58. Correct Answer: C – ₹3,060
After first discount:
4,000 × 0.85 = ₹3,400.
After second discount:
3,400 × 0.90
= ₹3,060.
Q59. Correct Answer: C – 3/5
Total balls = 7 + 5 + 8 = 20.
Not green = 7 + 5 = 12.
Probability = 12/20
= 3/5.
Q60. Correct Answer: D – 6
x² − 11x + 30 = 0
(x − 5)(x − 6) = 0.
Roots = 5 and 6.
Larger root = 6.
Q61. Correct Answer: C – 1,200 m²
Perimeter = 140.
Length + Breadth = 70.
Let breadth = b.
Length = b + 10.
2b + 10 = 70.
b = 30 m.
Length = 40 m.
Area = 40 × 30
= 1,200 m².
Q62. Correct Answer: D – 1,200 Units
Original machine-hours:
3 × 6 = 18.
Production per machine-hour:
540 ÷ 18 = 30 units.
New machine-hours:
5 × 8 = 40.
Production = 40 × 30
= 1,200 units.
Q63. Correct Answer: C – ₹12,000
SI = PRT/100.
3,600 = P × 7.5 × 4 / 100.
3,600 = 0.30P.
P = 3,600 ÷ 0.30
= ₹12,000.
Q64. Correct Answer: C – 24%
Increase = ₹31 lakh − ₹25 lakh = ₹6 lakh.
Percentage Increase = 6/25 × 100
= 24%.
Q65. Correct Answer: D – 96 TEU
20-foot containers = 24 TEU.
40-foot containers = 36 × 2 = 72 TEU.
Total = 24 + 72
= 96 TEU.
Section C: General Knowledge (Q66–80)
Q66. Correct Answer: B – Kolkata
South Eastern Railway is headquartered in Kolkata.
Q67. Correct Answer: C – 1935
The Reserve Bank of India began operations on 1 April 1935.
Q68. Correct Answer: D – Article 324
Article 324 provides the constitutional framework for the Election Commission's superintendence, direction and control of elections.
Q69. Correct Answer: B – Pratibha Patil
Pratibha Patil became India's first woman President in 2007.
Q70. Correct Answer: C – Bronze Age
The mature Harappan or Indus Valley civilisation belongs to the Bronze Age.
Q71. Correct Answer: B – Non-Cooperation Movement
The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched in 1920 following major developments including the Rowlatt Act and Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
Q72. Correct Answer: C – Tripura
Tripura shares an international land border with Bangladesh.
Q73. Correct Answer: B – Hertz
Hertz is the SI derived unit of frequency, equal to one cycle per second.
Q74. Correct Answer: C – 7
A neutral aqueous solution at 25°C has a pH of approximately 7.
Q75. Correct Answer: C – Red Blood Cells
Red blood cells contain haemoglobin, which carries oxygen throughout the body.
Q76. Correct Answer: B – Ministry of Commerce and Industry
DPIIT operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and plays a nodal coordination role in PM GatiShakti.
Q77. Correct Answer: D – Solar Energy
Solar energy is renewable because it is naturally replenished by sunlight.
Q78. Correct Answer: A – NABARD
The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development supports agricultural and rural development through relevant financial and developmental functions.
Q79. Correct Answer: C – Chandrayaan-3
Chandrayaan-3 successfully achieved a soft lunar landing on 23 August 2023.
Q80. Correct Answer: B – National Institution for Transforming India
NITI Aayog stands for National Institution for Transforming India.
Section D: Reasoning Ability (Q81–90)
Q81. Correct Answer: C – 223
Pattern:
Each term = Previous Term × 2 + 1.
6 × 2 + 1 = 13.
13 × 2 + 1 = 27.
27 × 2 + 1 = 55.
55 × 2 + 1 = 111.
111 × 2 + 1 = 223.
Q82. Correct Answer: D – AY PEM
Shift each letter of CARGO two positions backward:
C → A
A → Y
R → P
G → E
O → M
Therefore CARGO becomes AYPEM (Option D).
Q83. Correct Answer: C – 25 km
The movement forms a right triangle.
Shortest distance:
√(7² + 24²)
= √(49 + 576)
= √625
= 25 km.
Q84. Correct Answer: D – Wife
The only daughter of the man's wife's mother is his wife because she has no sisters.
Q85. Correct Answer: B – Some Ships Are Transport Units
Some ships are vessels, and all vessels are transport units.
Therefore, those ships must also be transport units.
Q86. Correct Answer: E – E
Arrangement:
C – A – E – B – D.
The middle position is the third position, occupied by E.
Q87. Correct Answer: E – 150
81 = 9²
100 = 10²
121 = 11²
144 = 12²
150 is not a perfect square.
Q88. Correct Answer: D – 89
R = 18
A = 1
I = 9
L = 12
W = 23
A = 1
Y = 25
Sum = 18 + 1 + 9 + 12 + 23 + 1 + 25
= 89.
Q89. Correct Answer: C – 48th
Rank from bottom:
Total − Rank from top + 1
= 75 − 28 + 1
= 48th.
Q90. Correct Answer: B – Saturday
June = 30 days.
July = 31 days.
Total interval = 61 days.
61 ÷ 7 leaves remainder 5.
Monday + 5 days = Saturday.
Section E: English Language (Q91–100)
Q91. Correct Answer: C – Viable
Feasible means possible or practical to carry out. Viable is the closest option.
Q92. Correct Answer: D – Explicit
Ambiguous means open to more than one interpretation or unclear. Explicit means clearly stated.
Q93. Correct Answer: B – Had Not Broken
This is a third conditional sentence referring to an unreal past condition.
Correct: "The shipment would have reached the destination on time if the truck had not broken down."
Q94. Correct Answer: C – Is Increasing
"The number" is a singular subject, so the verb is "is."
Q95. Correct Answer: B – Is Being Reviewed
Present continuous passive:
Am/Is/Are + Being + Past Participle.
Correct: "The contract is being reviewed."
Q96. Correct Answer: D – Commitment
Commitment is the correct spelling.
Q97. Correct Answer: C – To
The correct phrase is "committed to maintaining."
Q98. Correct Answer: A – Requested the Employees to Complete
A polite request can be reported using "requested + object + to + verb." In the usual backshifted context, "today" becomes "that day."
Q99. Correct Answer: B – Suitable Course Towards a Goal
"On the right track" means proceeding appropriately towards a desired outcome.
Q100. Correct Answer: C – No Sooner ... Than
The standard construction is "No sooner had ... than ..."
Correct: "No sooner had the goods arrived than unloading began."
Quick Answer Key – All 100 Questions
| Questions | Correct Answers |
|---|---|
| 1–10 | B C B D B C D B C D |
| 11–20 | D A D B C D B D D B |
| 21–30 | A C E B D B D C A E |
| 31–40 | D B C D E B C D E A |
| 41–50 | B C D C A D D C B D |
| 51–60 | C C B D B C C C C D |
| 61–70 | C D C C D B C D B C |
| 71–80 | B C B C C B D A C B |
| 81–90 | C D C D B E E D C B |
| 91–100 | C D B C B D C A B C |
Suggested Practice Performance
| Score | Suggested Preparation Level |
|---|---|
| 85–100 | Excellent |
| 75–84.75 | Very Good |
| 60–74.75 | Good, with targeted revision needed |
| 45–59.75 | Moderate, more practice needed |
| Below 45 | Prioritise fundamentals and accuracy |
These are study benchmarks, not official CONCOR cutoff marks.
Final Revision Strategy
After completing all six mock tests, review:
- Every incorrect Professional Knowledge question, especially freight costing, container operations, EXIM and inventory management.
- Quantitative Aptitude formulas involving percentages, time and work, interest, speed and distance, probability and geometry.
- General Knowledge topics, including Indian Railways, Indian Polity, History, Science, Geography and major government logistics initiatives.
- Reasoning techniques such as coding-decoding, number series, directions, syllogisms, ranking and seating arrangements.
- English grammar, vocabulary, subject–verb agreement, passive voice and reported speech.
Attempt your weakest questions again without using the answer key.
Conclusion
With CONCOR Management Trainee 2026 Grand Final Mock Test 6, the complete six-test practice series is finished.
The series contains 600 original multiple-choice questions across Professional Knowledge, Quantitative Aptitude, General Knowledge, Reasoning and English Language.
Each paper provides 100 questions, a 90-minute practice structure and explanations for self-assessment.
Explore the complete CONCOR Management Trainee study series: https://www.pratapsolution.com/search/label/CONCOR
