CONCOR Management Trainee 2026 – Full-Length Mock Test 5
CONCOR Management Trainee 2026 – Full-Length Mock Test 5
CONCOR MT (Commercial & Operations) | Mock Test 5 of 6 | 90-Minute Practice Paper
Preparing for the CONCOR Management Trainee Recruitment 2026 examination? Test your preparation with our fifth full-length mock test, containing 100 original multiple-choice questions.
This paper focuses on practical logistics decisions, supply chain calculations, rail and container operations, warehousing, inventory management, international trade, commercial contracts and business development.
The common sections cover Quantitative Aptitude, General Knowledge, Reasoning Ability and English Language.
Examination Instructions
- Total Questions: 100
- Maximum Marks: 100
- Time Allowed: 90 Minutes
- Correct Answer: +1 mark
- Incorrect Answer: −0.25 mark
- Unattempted: 0 marks
- Options: Five (A–E)
- Difficulty: Moderate to Difficult
Attempt the paper independently before looking at the answers.
SECTION A: PROFESSIONAL KNOWLEDGE
Questions 1–50 | 50 Marks
Railway Freight, Container Operations and Multimodal Logistics
Q1. A freight terminal receives 120 wagons in 24 hours. Its unloading system can process only 4 wagons per hour, operating continuously. Assuming the pattern continues, what is the most likely result?
A. The terminal will have 24 fewer wagons waiting each day
B. The queue will grow by 24 wagons per day
C. The queue will remain unchanged
D. The unloading capacity will automatically increase
E. All wagons will be unloaded immediately
Q2. A railway operator increases the payload of a freight rake without increasing the number of train paths used. Which productivity measure is most directly improved?
A. Revenue per employee necessarily
B. Terminal dwell time necessarily
C. Tonnes carried per train movement
D. Empty wagon kilometres necessarily
E. Number of railway stations served
Q3. A consignment contains 25 tonnes transported over 800 km. What is the total transport work?
A. 12,000 tonne-km
B. 16,000 tonne-km
C. 18,000 tonne-km
D. 20,000 tonne-km
E. 25,000 tonne-km
Q4. Which factor most directly limits the maximum permissible loading of a freight wagon on a railway route?
A. Customer advertising budget
B. Permitted axle load and wagon loading specifications
C. Container owner's nationality
D. Number of invoices issued
E. Distance from the company's registered office
Q5. A container terminal frequently moves the same container several times before final dispatch. Which yard-planning issue is most likely?
A. Excessively high customer satisfaction
B. Unnecessary re-handling due to poor slot allocation
C. Insufficient invoice printing
D. Reduced cargo classification accuracy
E. Overuse of supplier tenders
Q6. In container terminal operations, what is the main purpose of a pre-gate documentation check?
A. To replace the container's structural inspection permanently
B. To identify missing or inconsistent documents before the vehicle enters operational processing
C. To eliminate truck appointments
D. To change the cargo's country of origin
E. To approve all Customs shipments automatically
Q7. A terminal's average container dwell time increases from 3 days to 5 days while throughput remains unchanged. Under otherwise comparable conditions, what is the likely effect?
A. Less average yard space will be required
B. Yard inventory will automatically reach zero
C. Greater average yard occupancy will be required
D. Container arrival rates must decline to zero
E. No change in container inventory is possible
Q8. Which document is most directly associated with acknowledging carriage of goods by rail under the applicable railway process?
A. Air Waybill
B. Bill of Entry
C. Railway Receipt
D. Certificate of Origin
E. Letter of Credit
Q9. A shipper needs road pickup, inland rail haulage and final road delivery under one coordinated transport arrangement. Which service approach is most suitable?
A. Single-mode aviation
B. Multimodal logistics
C. Passenger rail reservation
D. Tank-only pipeline transport
E. Standalone warehouse valuation
Q10. Why is double-stack container transportation feasible only on suitably designed rail routes?
A. It requires no overhead or bridge clearance
B. It depends on appropriate loading gauge, infrastructure clearances and operating conditions
C. It automatically eliminates axle-load limits
D. It is permitted on every rail line regardless of infrastructure
E. It requires only changing a container's colour
Inventory and Warehouse Management
Q11. A spare part has low annual consumption value but is essential to prevent a complete terminal shutdown. Which control approach is most appropriate?
A. Ignore it because it belongs to a low-value category
B. Apply criticality-based control alongside consumption-value classification
C. Discard it after every inventory review
D. Order it only after the equipment fails
E. Classify it solely by carton size
Q12. An item has average daily consumption of 40 units, lead time of 7 days and safety stock of 90 units. What is its reorder point?
A. 280 units
B. 320 units
C. 350 units
D. 370 units
E. 410 units
Q13. In a continuous-review inventory system, the inventory position is commonly calculated as:
A. On-hand stock + On-order stock − Backorders
B. On-hand stock − Annual Sales Revenue
C. Annual Demand × Selling Price
D. Average Stock ÷ Lead Time
E. Freight Cost + Storage Cost
Q14. A warehouse stores high-value but slow-moving items. Which pairing is most suitable for inventory analysis?
A. ABC and FSN
B. FIFO and GST
C. OTIF and DSO
D. NPS and MAPE
E. LCL and FCL
Q15. Under the basic EOQ model, if ordering cost per order is reduced to one-fourth while demand and holding cost remain unchanged, EOQ becomes:
A. Four times the original
B. Twice the original
C. Half the original
D. One-fourth the original
E. Unchanged
Q16. A warehouse receives 2,000 order lines and picks 1,960 correctly. What is its line-picking error rate?
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 3%
D. 4%
E. 5%
Q17. Which is the strongest reason to separate incompatible hazardous materials in a warehouse?
A. To improve the appearance of inventory reports
B. To reduce safety risks from incompatible storage interactions
C. To eliminate inventory identifiers
D. To increase picking distance
E. To avoid recording material quantities
Q18. Which warehouse process specifically moves goods from a receiving dock to their assigned storage locations?
A. Replenishment forecasting
B. Put-away
C. Freight invoicing
D. Order consolidation
E. Product remanufacturing
Q19. A warehouse observes frequent stockouts despite adequate annual inventory purchases. Which problem should be investigated first?
A. Replenishment timing, lead-time variability and stock visibility
B. Office reception design
C. Container paint durability
D. Employee email signatures
E. Annual advertising costs
Q20. What does a warehouse's dock-to-stock time measure?
A. The time between receiving goods at the dock and making them available in inventory under the defined process
B. The time from a customer's payment to annual audit completion
C. The average lifespan of a pallet
D. The time between two railway safety inspections
E. The time a cargo vessel spends at sea
International Trade, Shipping and Customs
Q21. Under Incoterms 2020, which rule requires the seller to arrange cargo insurance with the higher default minimum coverage requirement associated with Institute Cargo Clauses (A), subject to the rule's provisions?
A. EXW
B. FOB
C. FCA
D. CIP
E. FAS
Q22. Under CIF Incoterms 2020, where does the risk of loss or damage generally transfer from seller to buyer?
A. When the cargo reaches the buyer's warehouse
B. When the goods are on board the vessel at the port of shipment
C. Only after import Customs clearance
D. When the buyer pays the final invoice
E. When the cargo leaves the destination port
Q23. Which of the following is an important function of the HS classification system?
A. Establishing internationally harmonised commodity classifications
B. Determining annual employee bonuses
C. Issuing railway passenger tickets
D. Automatically calculating every freight operator's net profit
E. Replacing Customs declarations entirely
Q24. A freight forwarder consolidates smaller shipments from multiple exporters into a container. Which document may it issue when acting as contractual carrier?
A. House Bill of Lading
B. Railway Passenger Ticket
C. Supplier Attendance Register
D. Annual Inventory Statement
E. Warehouse Electricity Invoice
Q25. What is the primary distinction between a commercial invoice and a packing list?
A. The invoice records commercial transaction details; the packing list describes physical shipment particulars
B. Both are always identical documents
C. A packing list is used only for passenger baggage
D. A commercial invoice can never contain quantities
E. Neither is relevant to international trade
Q26. A container shipment is held for examination by Customs. Which action should a logistics service provider take?
A. Release it without authorisation
B. Follow the applicable examination and clearance process and inform relevant parties
C. Change the container seal without recording it
D. Remove the cargo description from the documents
E. Invoice the customer for a fictitious service
Q27. Which trade-finance instrument typically requires a bank to honour a complying presentation of specified documents?
A. Purchase Requisition
B. Letter of Credit
C. Goods Receipt Note
D. Warehouse Location Card
E. Cargo Gate Pass
Q28. A shipment of 30 cubic metres weighs 12,000 kg. Under an LCL tariff charging the greater of metric tonnes or cubic metres as revenue tonnes, what is the chargeable quantity?
A. 12 revenue tonnes
B. 18 revenue tonnes
C. 24 revenue tonnes
D. 30 revenue tonnes
E. 42 revenue tonnes
Q29. Which statement most accurately describes a bonded warehouse?
A. Goods stored there are permanently exempt from all Customs duties
B. Eligible goods are stored under relevant Customs control subject to applicable law
C. It can only store empty containers
D. It is exclusively a passenger transport facility
E. Customs authorities have no jurisdiction over the warehouse
Q30. A customs broker notices a mismatch between the commercial invoice and packing list. What is the most suitable action before submission?
A. Ignore the discrepancy
B. Seek clarification and correct the documentation using verified shipment details
C. Choose whichever document shows the lower value without evidence
D. Submit both knowing they are inconsistent
E. Remove the shipment's identification details
Commercial Operations, Procurement and Marketing
Q31. A logistics service costs ₹75,000. Management requires a 25% contribution margin on selling price, assuming this cost is the entire relevant variable-cost base. What price is required?
A. ₹90,000
B. ₹93,750
C. ₹95,000
D. ₹100,000
E. ₹105,000
Q32. A customer requests a lower freight rate in exchange for a two-year volume commitment. Which factor is most important before accepting?
A. Customer's logo size
B. Expected profitability, capacity requirements and contract risks
C. The number of unrelated website visitors
D. The age of the salesperson
E. Competitors' office locations alone
Q33. A sales pipeline has three opportunities: ₹4 lakh at 50%, ₹6 lakh at 30%, and ₹2 lakh at 80%. What is the weighted pipeline value?
A. ₹4.4 lakh
B. ₹5.0 lakh
C. ₹5.4 lakh
D. ₹6.0 lakh
E. ₹7.2 lakh
Q34. Which pricing strategy initially sets a relatively low price to attract customers and gain market share?
A. Price skimming
B. Penetration pricing
C. Prestige pricing
D. Cost escalation
E. Transfer pricing
Q35. Which measure is most directly useful for evaluating profitability of an individual logistics customer account?
A. Revenue less attributable account service costs
B. Number of freight terminals nationally
C. Number of competitors alone
D. Total company employee count
E. Railway track length
Q36. In commercial contract management, an SLA breach means:
A. Failure to satisfy a defined service commitment
B. Completion of every delivery on time
C. Successful renewal of a contract
D. Increase in customer order quantity
E. Approval of a purchase requisition
Q37. What is the principal purpose of earnest money deposit (EMD) in a tender, where applicable?
A. To provide bid security under tender conditions
B. To pay every future freight invoice
C. To replace the contract price
D. To guarantee transport without insurance
E. To calculate warehouse depreciation
Q38. Which procurement approach is most appropriate when a complex logistics technology solution requires detailed vendor proposals rather than just standard product price quotations?
A. Request for Proposal
B. Goods Receipt Note
C. Packing List
D. Container Equipment Interchange Receipt
E. Shipping Bill
Q39. A supplier's quotation is ₹5,00,000 with an additional ₹40,000 transport charge and ₹10,000 installation expense. Ignoring recoverable taxes and other costs, what is the total acquisition cost?
A. ₹5,00,000
B. ₹5,10,000
C. ₹5,40,000
D. ₹5,50,000
E. ₹5,90,000
Q40. Which business development approach is most useful for a logistics company selling complex services to a large manufacturing client?
A. Consultative selling based on the client's operational needs
B. Offering an identical solution to every customer without assessment
C. Avoiding discussions about delivery requirements
D. Making service guarantees without capacity analysis
E. Ignoring existing customer challenges
Operations Analytics, Technology and Risk
Q41. A terminal handles 3,600 TEUs in 30 days. What is its average daily throughput?
A. 90 TEUs
B. 100 TEUs
C. 110 TEUs
D. 120 TEUs
E. 150 TEUs
Q42. A company's average inventory is ₹8 lakh and annual Cost of Goods Sold is ₹48 lakh. Approximately how many days of inventory does it hold, using a 360-day year?
A. 45 days
B. 50 days
C. 60 days
D. 75 days
E. 90 days
Q43. Which performance measure best indicates how efficiently a warehouse processes orders relative to labour input?
A. Order lines picked per labour hour
B. Number of vehicle registrations in the city
C. Average customer age
D. Annual freight insurance rate
E. Number of unused office rooms
Q44. In quality management, a control chart is primarily used to:
A. Monitor process variation over time
B. Determine ocean freight rates exclusively
C. Calculate import duty automatically
D. Register a vehicle
E. Assign product HS codes
Q45. A company experiences repeated disruptions from a single supplier. Which action most directly improves resilience?
A. Qualify an alternative supplier and establish contingency arrangements
B. Increase dependence on the same supplier without review
C. Remove supplier performance monitoring
D. Reduce shipment visibility
E. Ignore the disruptions
Q46. In the context of an integrated ERP system, what is the main benefit of connecting procurement, inventory and finance data?
A. Greater consistency and visibility across related business transactions
B. Elimination of every purchasing approval
C. Automatic compliance with all laws
D. Removal of the need to maintain master data
E. Guaranteed zero software costs
Q47. A logistics company wants to reduce greenhouse gas emissions per tonne-kilometre. Which measure could help achieve this?
A. Increasing avoidable empty trips
B. Improving load factors and route efficiency
C. Increasing unnecessary cargo handling
D. Using longer routes without justification
E. Ignoring fleet maintenance
Q48. In project scheduling, the critical path is:
A. The longest-duration sequence of dependent activities that determines the minimum project completion time under the schedule model
B. The route with the lowest fuel price
C. The sequence with the fewest activities irrespective of duration
D. The warehouse aisle with the most products
E. The supplier with the lowest quoted price
Q49. A project has two sequential critical activities requiring 8 days and 12 days. If the second activity starts only after the first finishes, what is their combined duration?
A. 12 days
B. 16 days
C. 18 days
D. 20 days
E. 24 days
Q50. A logistics manager must choose between a low-cost carrier with frequent delays and a higher-cost carrier with reliable on-time service. Which decision principle is best?
A. Choose the cheapest quoted freight rate in all circumstances
B. Compare expected total logistics costs, service requirements and delay risks
C. Ignore the customer's required delivery date
D. Choose solely by advertising popularity
E. Assume every delay has zero financial impact
SECTION B: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Questions 51–65 | 15 Marks
Q51. A sum becomes ₹14,520 after two years at 10% annual compound interest. What was the principal?
A. ₹10,000
B. ₹11,000
C. ₹12,000
D. ₹12,500
E. ₹13,200
Q52. A train 300 metres long passes another train 200 metres long travelling in the opposite direction at 54 km/h. If the first train travels at 72 km/h, how much time do they take to cross each other completely?
A. 12 seconds
B. 100/7 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 16 seconds
E. 18 seconds
Q53. A and B can complete a job in 18 and 24 days respectively. They work together for six days, after which A leaves. How many additional days will B require to finish the remaining work?
A. 8 days
B. 9 days
C. 10 days
D. 11 days
E. 12 days
Q54. A shopkeeper marks an item 60% above cost and gives a 25% discount on the marked price. What is the profit percentage?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%
E. 30%
Q55. The average of 12 numbers is 36. If the average of the first seven is 32, what is the average of the remaining five numbers?
A. 38.4
B. 40.0
C. 41.6
D. 42.4
E. 43.2
Q56. A mixture contains 45 litres of milk and 15 litres of water. How much water must be added to make the ratio of milk to water 3:2?
A. 5 litres
B. 10 litres
C. 15 litres
D. 20 litres
E. 25 litres
Q57. Two numbers are in the ratio 5:8 and their HCF is 7. Assuming these are the numbers in lowest ratio form multiplied by their HCF, what is their LCM?
A. 175
B. 210
C. 245
D. 280
E. 350
Q58. A container handler charges ₹650 per lift. A customer receives a discount of 8% on the total lifting bill for 40 lifts. What is the final charge before tax?
A. ₹23,000
B. ₹23,400
C. ₹23,920
D. ₹24,200
E. ₹24,960
Q59. A cyclist covers 30 km at 15 km/h and another 30 km at 10 km/h. What is the overall average speed?
A. 11 km/h
B. 12 km/h
C. 12.5 km/h
D. 13 km/h
E. 14 km/h
Q60. Two fair dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting a sum of 9?
A. 1/12
B. 1/9
C. 1/8
D. 1/6
E. 2/9
Q61. If 3x + 2y = 19 and x − y = 3, what is x?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7
Q62. A person invests ₹20,000 at 6% simple interest for two years and ₹30,000 at 8% simple interest for three years. What is the combined interest?
A. ₹8,400
B. ₹9,000
C. ₹9,600
D. ₹10,200
E. ₹10,800
Q63. The length of a rectangle is 20% greater than its breadth. If its area is 480 m², what is its perimeter?
A. 80 m
B. 84 m
C. 88 m
D. 92 m
E. 96 m
Q64. A company earns ₹18 lakh in revenue and incurs ₹12 lakh variable costs and ₹4 lakh fixed costs. What is the net operating profit margin under these assumptions?
A. 8.33%
B. 10%
C. 11.11%
D. 12.5%
E. 15%
Q65. A warehouse has 480 cartons. If 25% are dispatched on Monday and one-third of the remaining cartons are dispatched on Tuesday, how many cartons remain?
A. 200
B. 220
C. 240
D. 260
E. 280
SECTION C: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE & AWARENESS
Questions 66–80 | 15 Marks
Q66. Which of the following Indian ports is located on the eastern coast?
A. Mumbai Port
B. Mormugao Port
C. Deendayal Port
D. Visakhapatnam Port
E. Cochin Port
Q67. Which constitutional amendment introduced the Goods and Services Tax framework in India?
A. 42nd Amendment
B. 73rd Amendment
C. 86th Amendment
D. 101st Amendment
E. 103rd Amendment
Q68. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the Right to Constitutional Remedies?
A. Article 17
B. Article 19
C. Article 21
D. Article 32
E. Article 44
Q69. Which body prepares the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India?
A. Office of the Economic Adviser, DPIIT
B. Election Commission of India
C. Central Board of Film Certification
D. Comptroller and Auditor General
E. Securities and Exchange Board of India
Q70. Which city hosted the first session of the Indian National Congress in 1885?
A. Calcutta
B. Bombay
C. Madras
D. Allahabad
E. Lahore
Q71. Which freedom fighter gave the call "Do or Die" during the Quit India Movement?
A. Bhagat Singh
B. Subhas Chandra Bose
C. Mahatma Gandhi
D. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
E. Lala Lajpat Rai
Q72. The Sardar Sarovar Dam is built on which river?
A. Krishna
B. Narmada
C. Tapti
D. Mahanadi
E. Godavari
Q73. Which Indian state has the longest coastline among the following?
A. Odisha
B. Kerala
C. Gujarat
D. West Bengal
E. Goa
Q74. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?
A. Nitrogen
B. Argon
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Neon
E. Helium
Q75. What is the chemical symbol for potassium?
A. P
B. Pt
C. Po
D. K
E. Ka
Q76. Which organ in the human body filters blood and produces urine?
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Pancreas
D. Stomach
E. Gallbladder
Q77. Which institution is responsible for conducting elections to the Lok Sabha?
A. Union Public Service Commission
B. Election Commission of India
C. Finance Commission
D. NITI Aayog
E. Central Vigilance Commission
Q78. Which international organisation administers the Harmonized System Convention?
A. International Monetary Fund
B. World Customs Organization
C. International Civil Aviation Organization
D. International Labour Organization
E. United Nations Development Programme
Q79. In India's logistics ecosystem, ULIP stands for:
A. Unified Logistics Interface Platform
B. Universal Loading Infrastructure Programme
C. Union Logistics Investment Policy
D. Unified Labour Insurance Plan
E. Universal Logistics Import Portal
Q80. What is the primary objective of the UDAN scheme in India?
A. Development of railway freight corridors
B. Improving regional air connectivity and affordability
C. Building inland waterways exclusively
D. Promoting agricultural crop insurance
E. Managing Customs tariffs
SECTION D: REASONING ABILITY
Questions 81–90 | 10 Marks
Q81. Find the next number in the series:
1, 4, 10, 19, 31, 46, ?
A. 58
B. 61
C. 64
D. 67
E. 70
Q82. If every letter is shifted three places forward in the alphabet, how is DOCK coded?
A. GRFN
B. GQFN
C. GREN
D. FRFN
E. GRFM
Q83. A person travels 12 km north, 5 km east and 12 km south. Then they travel 9 km west. Where are they relative to the starting point?
A. 4 km east
B. 4 km west
C. 5 km north
D. 9 km west
E. 17 km south
Q84. A woman says, "That boy's father is the only son of my mother." The woman has exactly one brother. How is the boy related to the woman?
A. Son
B. Brother
C. Nephew
D. Cousin
E. Grandson
Q85. Statements: All depots are facilities. Some facilities are automated. No automated facility is a manual-only facility. Which conclusion necessarily follows?
A. All depots are automated
B. Some depots are manual-only
C. No automated facility is manual-only
D. Every facility is a depot
E. No depot is automated
Q86. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are seated facing north. D is immediately to the left of A; A is immediately to the left of F; F is immediately to the left of B; C is at the extreme left; E is at the extreme right. Who sits fourth from the left?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. F
Q87. Which is the odd one out?
A. 125
B. 216
C. 343
D. 512
E. 625
Q88. In a code using A=1, B=2, ..., Z=26, what is the sum of letters in CARGO?
A. 42
B. 43
C. 44
D. 45
E. 46
Q89. A student ranks 21st from the top in a class of 60 students. What is the rank from the bottom?
A. 38th
B. 39th
C. 40th
D. 41st
E. 42nd
Q90. If 15 August is a Saturday, what day of the week will 15 September be in the same year?
A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Wednesday
D. Thursday
E. Friday
SECTION E: ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Questions 91–100 | 10 Marks
Q91. Choose the synonym of Expedite.
A. Postpone
B. Accelerate
C. Obstruct
D. Delay
E. Suspend
Q92. Choose the antonym of Coherent.
A. Logical
B. Consistent
C. Organised
D. Incoherent
E. Connected
Q93. Fill in the blank:
If the supplier had delivered the materials on time, production ___ delayed.
A. will not be
B. would not have been
C. would not be
D. had not been
E. is not being
Q94. Select the grammatically correct sentence.
A. The criteria for selection is clearly defined.
B. The criteria for selection are clearly defined.
C. The criterias for selection are clearly defined.
D. The criteria for selection has clearly defined.
E. The criteria for selection were clearly define.
Q95. Choose the correct passive voice:
"The manager had approved the quotation before noon."
A. The quotation has approved by the manager before noon.
B. The quotation had been approved by the manager before noon.
C. The quotation was being approve by the manager before noon.
D. The quotation has been approving by the manager before noon.
E. The quotation had approve by the manager before noon.
Q96. Select the correctly spelled word.
A. Surveilance
B. Survaillance
C. Surveillance
D. Surveillence
E. Survillance
Q97. Fill in the blank:
The shipment was delayed ___ adverse weather conditions.
A. because
B. because of
C. although
D. despite of
E. unless
Q98. Choose the correct indirect speech:
He said to me, "Have you checked the inventory?"
A. He asked me if I had checked the inventory.
B. He asked me had I checked the inventory.
C. He told me if have I checked the inventory.
D. He asked that I checked the inventory?
E. He asked me whether had I checked the inventory.
Q99. What does the phrase "a bottleneck" mean in an operational context?
A. A process that restricts overall flow or capacity
B. The fastest activity in a process
C. A discount given by a carrier
D. A document used for export clearance
E. A method of calculating inventory turnover
Q100. Choose the grammatically correct sentence.
A. Hardly had the train arrived than the unloading began.
B. Hardly the train had arrived when the unloading began.
C. Hardly had the train arrived when the unloading began.
D. Hardly did the train arrived when the unloading began.
E. Hardly had the train arrive when the unloading began.
END OF MOCK TEST 5 – QUESTION PAPER
Stop here if you have not completed all 100 questions.
Record your answers and attempt the test within the prescribed 90-minute period.
Scoring Formula: Final Score = Correct Answers − (0.25 × Incorrect Answers)
Unattempted questions receive zero marks.
CONCOR Management Trainee 2026 – Mock Test 5 Answer Key and Detailed Explanations
Full-Length Mock Test 5 of 6 | 100 Questions | Commercial & Operations
This section provides the correct answers and explanations for Mock Test 5. Check your responses only after completing the question paper.
Section A: Professional Knowledge (Q1–50)
Q1. Correct Answer: B – Queue Grows by 24 Wagons per Day
Incoming wagons = 120 per day.
Unloading capacity = 4 × 24 = 96 wagons per day.
Net increase = 120 − 96 = 24 wagons per day.
Since arrivals exceed capacity, the queue increases if the rates continue.
Q2. Correct Answer: C – Tonnes per Train Movement
Increasing payload per train enables more cargo to be transported using the same number of train paths, improving freight carrying productivity.
Q3. Correct Answer: D – 20,000 Tonne-Km
Transport Work = Cargo Weight × Distance
= 25 × 800
= 20,000 tonne-km.
Q4. Correct Answer: B – Axle Load and Wagon Specifications
Permissible loads depend on wagon design, loading conditions, route axle-load limits and applicable railway operating requirements.
Q5. Correct Answer: B – Unnecessary Re-handling
Poor slot allocation may cause containers needed for dispatch to be blocked by other containers. This increases equipment movements and handling time.
Q6. Correct Answer: B – Documentation Verification
Pre-gate checks identify missing information or inconsistent documents before trucks enter the terminal, potentially reducing avoidable gate delays.
Q7. Correct Answer: C – Greater Average Yard Occupancy
With throughput unchanged, a longer average dwell time generally increases average container inventory.
Under stable conditions, Little's Law illustrates the relationship:
Average Inventory = Throughput Rate × Average Dwell Time.
Q8. Correct Answer: C – Railway Receipt
A Railway Receipt is an important document relating to the carriage of goods by rail under the relevant railway framework.
Q9. Correct Answer: B – Multimodal Logistics
A coordinated shipment involving road pickup, rail haulage and road delivery uses multiple transport modes.
Q10. Correct Answer: B – Infrastructure Clearance and Operating Conditions
Double-stack container trains require suitable loading gauge, bridge and overhead clearances, axle-load capacity and operational arrangements.
Q11. Correct Answer: B – Criticality-Based Control
An inexpensive spare part may still be operationally vital. VED or other criticality-based evaluation can complement ABC classification.
Q12. Correct Answer: D – 370 Units
Reorder Point = Lead-Time Demand + Safety Stock
= (40 × 7) + 90
= 280 + 90
= 370 units.
Q13. Correct Answer: A – On-Hand + On-Order − Backorders
Inventory position accounts for physical stock, outstanding replenishment orders and committed backorders under the defined model.
Q14. Correct Answer: A – ABC and FSN
ABC Analysis measures relative annual consumption value.
FSN identifies Fast-moving, Slow-moving and Non-moving inventory.
Together they provide insight into value and movement behaviour.
Q15. Correct Answer: C – Half the Original EOQ
EOQ = √(2DS/H).
EOQ is proportional to the square root of ordering cost.
If ordering cost falls to one-fourth:
New EOQ = √(1/4) × Old EOQ
= Half the original EOQ.
Q16. Correct Answer: B – 2%
Incorrect lines = 2,000 − 1,960 = 40.
Error Rate = (40 ÷ 2,000) × 100
= 2%.
Q17. Correct Answer: B – Reduce Storage Safety Risks
Incompatible hazardous substances can create serious fire, chemical reaction or exposure risks. Appropriate segregation is therefore essential.
Q18. Correct Answer: B – Put-Away
Put-away is the process of transferring received goods from the receiving area to suitable storage locations.
Q19. Correct Answer: A – Replenishment and Inventory Visibility
Stockouts can result from poor reorder parameters, inaccurate inventory records, supplier delays or demand variability despite sufficient total annual purchases.
Q20. Correct Answer: A – Receiving to Stock Availability
Dock-to-stock time measures how long goods take to move from receiving to an available inventory status under the organisation's defined process.
Q21. Correct Answer: D – CIP
Under Incoterms 2020, CIP requires the seller to arrange specified carriage and insurance. The default insurance coverage requirement is generally higher than that under CIF.
Q22. Correct Answer: B – Goods on Board the Vessel
Under CIF, the seller pays for specified carriage and insurance to the destination port, but risk generally transfers when the goods are on board the vessel at the shipment port.
Q23. Correct Answer: A – Commodity Classification
The Harmonized System provides internationally harmonised commodity descriptions and coding, supporting Customs and international trade classification.
Q24. Correct Answer: A – House Bill of Lading
A freight forwarder or NVOCC acting as contractual carrier may issue a House Bill of Lading under the applicable transport arrangement.
Q25. Correct Answer: A – Commercial vs Physical Shipment Information
The commercial invoice documents the commercial transaction, while the packing list describes packaging, package counts, quantities and other physical particulars.
Q26. Correct Answer: B – Follow Customs Procedures
Cargo under Customs examination must be handled according to applicable legal processes. The logistics provider should coordinate with relevant parties and maintain accurate records.
Q27. Correct Answer: B – Letter of Credit
A documentary Letter of Credit contains a bank's undertaking to honour a presentation that complies with its terms and applicable rules.
Q28. Correct Answer: D – 30 Revenue Tonnes
Cargo weight = 12,000 kg = 12 metric tonnes.
Volume = 30 cubic metres.
Under the stated charging rule, chargeable quantity is the greater value.
Chargeable quantity = 30 revenue tonnes.
Q29. Correct Answer: B – Customs-Controlled Storage
A bonded warehouse allows eligible goods to be stored subject to applicable Customs controls and conditions.
Q30. Correct Answer: B – Resolve Documentation Discrepancy
Invoice and packing-list information should be reconciled using verified cargo details before submission. Unexplained mismatches can lead to clearance problems.
Q31. Correct Answer: D – ₹1,00,000
Cost = ₹75,000.
Required contribution margin = 25% of revenue.
Revenue − Cost = 0.25 × Revenue.
Therefore:
Selling Price = 75,000 ÷ (1 − 0.25)
= 75,000 ÷ 0.75
= ₹1,00,000.
Q32. Correct Answer: B – Profitability, Capacity and Risk
A long-term volume commitment should be evaluated against expected revenue, contribution, capacity constraints, service obligations and contractual risks.
Q33. Correct Answer: C – ₹5.4 Lakh
Weighted Pipeline = Sum of Opportunity Value × Closing Probability
Opportunity 1 = 4 × 0.50 = ₹2 lakh.
Opportunity 2 = 6 × 0.30 = ₹1.8 lakh.
Opportunity 3 = 2 × 0.80 = ₹1.6 lakh.
Total = 2 + 1.8 + 1.6
= ₹5.4 lakh.
Q34. Correct Answer: B – Penetration Pricing
Penetration pricing initially uses a relatively low price to encourage adoption or gain market share.
Q35. Correct Answer: A – Revenue Minus Attributable Costs
Account-level contribution helps evaluate the commercial value of a customer relationship by considering revenue and the relevant costs of serving the account.
Q36. Correct Answer: A – Failure to Meet Service Commitments
An SLA breach occurs when a supplier fails to meet a specified service obligation or performance target, subject to the agreement's definitions.
Q37. Correct Answer: A – Bid Security
EMD, where required, helps secure a bidder's obligations during the tender process under the stated conditions.
Q38. Correct Answer: A – Request for Proposal
An RFP invites vendors to submit detailed solutions and commercial proposals against specified requirements.
Q39. Correct Answer: D – ₹5,50,000
Total Acquisition Cost:
₹5,00,000 + ₹40,000 + ₹10,000
= ₹5,50,000.
Q40. Correct Answer: A – Consultative Selling
Complex logistics services require understanding customer problems, operational requirements, constraints and desired business outcomes before proposing a solution.
Q41. Correct Answer: D – 120 TEUs per Day
Average Daily Throughput = 3,600 ÷ 30
= 120 TEUs/day.
Q42. Correct Answer: C – 60 Days
Days Inventory Outstanding:
DIO = Average Inventory ÷ Annual COGS × 360
= 8 ÷ 48 × 360
= 60 days.
Q43. Correct Answer: A – Order Lines per Labour Hour
This KPI relates warehouse output to labour input and can help monitor order-picking productivity.
Q44. Correct Answer: A – Monitor Process Variation
Control charts track process performance over time and help distinguish common-cause variation from signals of unusual process behaviour.
Q45. Correct Answer: A – Alternative Suppliers and Contingencies
Backup sourcing and contingency planning can reduce the consequences of repeated interruptions from a critical supplier.
Q46. Correct Answer: A – Integrated Transaction Visibility
ERP integration supports consistent procurement, inventory and finance records, improving coordination and reducing unnecessary duplication.
Q47. Correct Answer: B – Improve Load Factors and Routes
Better vehicle utilisation and route planning can reduce energy consumption and emissions per unit of freight transport work.
Q48. Correct Answer: A – Critical Path
The critical path is the longest-duration sequence of dependent activities that determines project completion time under the scheduling model.
Q49. Correct Answer: D – 20 Days
Both activities are sequential:
8 + 12 = 20 days.
Q50. Correct Answer: B – Total Logistics Cost and Service Evaluation
Freight purchasing decisions should consider expected delays, penalties, cargo risks, customer requirements and other relevant logistics costs, not just the quoted price.
Section B: Quantitative Aptitude (Q51–65)
Q51. Correct Answer: C – ₹12,000
Compound Interest Amount:
A = P(1 + r/100)²
14,520 = P × 1.10²
14,520 = 1.21P
P = 14,520 ÷ 1.21
= ₹12,000.
Q52. Correct Answer: B – 100/7 Seconds
First train speed = 72 km/h.
Second train speed = 54 km/h.
Relative speed = 72 + 54 = 126 km/h.
Convert to m/s:
126 × 5/18 = 35 m/s.
Combined length = 300 + 200 = 500 m.
Time = 500 ÷ 35
= 100/7 seconds, approximately 14.29 seconds.
Q53. Correct Answer: C – 10 Days
A's rate = 1/18 per day.
B's rate = 1/24 per day.
Combined rate:
1/18 + 1/24 = 7/72.
Work completed in six days:
6 × 7/72 = 7/12.
Remaining work:
1 − 7/12 = 5/12.
B's time = (5/12) ÷ (1/24)
= (5/12) × 24
= 10 days.
Q54. Correct Answer: C – 20% Profit
Assume Cost Price = ₹100.
Marked Price = ₹160.
After 25% discount:
Selling Price = 160 × 0.75
= ₹120.
Profit = ₹20.
Profit Percentage = 20%.
Q55. Correct Answer: C – 41.6
Total sum of 12 numbers:
12 × 36 = 432.
Sum of first seven:
7 × 32 = 224.
Sum of remaining five:
432 − 224 = 208.
Average = 208 ÷ 5
= 41.6.
Q56. Correct Answer: C – 15 Litres
Milk = 45 litres.
Original water = 15 litres.
Let added water = x.
Required ratio:
45/(15 + x) = 3/2.
90 = 45 + 3x.
3x = 45.
x = 15 litres.
Q57. Correct Answer: D – 280
Numbers in the given ratio are:
5 × 7 = 35.
8 × 7 = 56.
Since 5 and 8 are coprime, their HCF is 7.
LCM = (35 × 56) ÷ 7
= 280.
Q58. Correct Answer: C – ₹23,920
Total before discount:
40 × ₹650 = ₹26,000.
Discount = 8%.
Final Charge = ₹26,000 × 0.92
= ₹23,920.
Q59. Correct Answer: B – 12 km/h
First 30 km at 15 km/h:
Time = 2 hours.
Second 30 km at 10 km/h:
Time = 3 hours.
Total distance = 60 km.
Total time = 5 hours.
Average speed = 60 ÷ 5
= 12 km/h.
Q60. Correct Answer: B – 1/9
Possible outcomes with two dice = 36.
Sum of 9 occurs with:
(3,6), (4,5), (5,4), (6,3).
Favourable outcomes = 4.
Probability = 4/36
= 1/9.
Q61. Correct Answer: C – 5
Given:
3x + 2y = 19
x − y = 3.
From the second equation:
y = x − 3.
Substitute:
3x + 2(x − 3) = 19.
5x − 6 = 19.
5x = 25.
x = 5.
Q62. Correct Answer: C – ₹9,600
First investment:
SI = 20,000 × 6 × 2 / 100
= ₹2,400.
Second investment:
SI = 30,000 × 8 × 3 / 100
= ₹7,200.
Total Interest = 2,400 + 7,200
= ₹9,600.
Q63. Correct Answer: C – 88 Metres
Let breadth = b.
Length = 1.2b.
Area:
1.2b² = 480.
b² = 400.
b = 20 m.
Length = 24 m.
Perimeter = 2(24 + 20)
= 88 m.
Q64. Correct Answer: C – 11.11%
Revenue = ₹18 lakh.
Variable Cost = ₹12 lakh.
Fixed Cost = ₹4 lakh.
Operating Profit = 18 − 12 − 4
= ₹2 lakh.
Operating Profit Margin = 2/18 × 100
≈ 11.11%.
Q65. Correct Answer: C – 240 Cartons
Initial stock = 480 cartons.
Monday dispatch:
25% × 480 = 120 cartons.
Remaining = 360 cartons.
Tuesday dispatch:
One-third × 360 = 120 cartons.
Final remaining = 360 − 120
= 240 cartons.
Section C: General Knowledge (Q66–80)
Q66. Correct Answer: D – Visakhapatnam Port
Visakhapatnam Port is located on India's eastern coast in Andhra Pradesh.
Q67. Correct Answer: D – 101st Amendment
The Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016 established the constitutional framework for Goods and Services Tax.
Q68. Correct Answer: D – Article 32
Article 32 provides the right to approach the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
Q69. Correct Answer: A – Office of the Economic Adviser
The Office of the Economic Adviser under DPIIT compiles and releases the Wholesale Price Index in India.
Q70. Correct Answer: B – Bombay
The first session of the Indian National Congress was held in Bombay in 1885.
Q71. Correct Answer: C – Mahatma Gandhi
Mahatma Gandhi gave the "Do or Die" call during the Quit India Movement in August 1942.
Q72. Correct Answer: B – Narmada
The Sardar Sarovar Dam is constructed on the Narmada River.
Q73. Correct Answer: C – Gujarat
Gujarat has the longest coastline among Indian states.
Q74. Correct Answer: C – Carbon Dioxide
Carbon dioxide absorbs infrared radiation and contributes to the greenhouse effect.
Q75. Correct Answer: D – K
The chemical symbol K comes from the Latin name kalium.
Q76. Correct Answer: B – Kidney
The kidneys filter blood, regulate important substances and produce urine.
Q77. Correct Answer: B – Election Commission of India
The Election Commission conducts elections to the Lok Sabha and relevant other constitutional offices.
Q78. Correct Answer: B – World Customs Organization
The World Customs Organization maintains the Harmonized System used in international commodity classification.
Q79. Correct Answer: A – Unified Logistics Interface Platform
ULIP supports digital integration and authorised data exchange across logistics-related systems.
Q80. Correct Answer: B – Regional Air Connectivity
UDAN aims to make regional air travel more accessible and affordable through the relevant scheme framework.
Section D: Reasoning Ability (Q81–90)
Q81. Correct Answer: C – 64
Series:
1, 4, 10, 19, 31, 46, ?
Differences:
3, 6, 9, 12, 15.
Next difference = 18.
46 + 18 = 64.
Q82. Correct Answer: A – GRFN
Shift each letter forward by three:
D → G
O → R
C → F
K → N
DOCK becomes GRFN.
Q83. Correct Answer: B – 4 km West
Northward and southward movements cancel:
12 km north − 12 km south = 0.
East-west movement:
5 km east − 9 km west = 4 km west.
Final position = 4 km west.
Q84. Correct Answer: C – Nephew
The only son of the woman's mother is her brother.
The boy's father is that brother.
Therefore, the boy is her nephew.
Q85. Correct Answer: C – No Automated Facility Is Manual-Only
This conclusion is explicitly supported by the given statements.
There is insufficient information to determine whether any depot is automated.
Q86. Correct Answer: E – F
Arrangement from left to right:
C – D – A – F – B – E.
Fourth position = F.
Q87. Correct Answer: E – 625
125 = 5³
216 = 6³
343 = 7³
512 = 8³
625 is not a perfect cube.
Q88. Correct Answer: C – 44
C = 3
A = 1
R = 18
G = 7
O = 15
Total = 3 + 1 + 18 + 7 + 15
= 44.
Q89. Correct Answer: C – 40th
Rank from bottom:
Total − Rank from top + 1
= 60 − 21 + 1
= 40th.
Q90. Correct Answer: B – Tuesday
15 August to 15 September = 31 days.
31 ÷ 7 leaves remainder 3.
Saturday + 3 days = Tuesday.
Section E: English Language (Q91–100)
Q91. Correct Answer: B – Accelerate
Expedite means to make a process happen sooner or faster. Accelerate is the closest synonym.
Q92. Correct Answer: D – Incoherent
Coherent means logical, consistent or clearly connected. Incoherent is its opposite.
Q93. Correct Answer: B – Would Not Have Been
This is a third conditional sentence describing an unreal past situation.
Structure:
If + Past Perfect, Would Have + Past Participle.
Correct sentence:
"If the supplier had delivered the materials on time, production would not have been delayed."
Q94. Correct Answer: B – Criteria Are
Criteria is the plural of criterion.
Therefore, the plural verb "are" is correct.
Q95. Correct Answer: B – Had Been Approved
Past perfect passive structure:
Had + Been + Past Participle.
Correct sentence:
"The quotation had been approved by the manager before noon."
Q96. Correct Answer: C – Surveillance
Surveillance is the correct spelling.
Q97. Correct Answer: B – Because Of
"Because of" is followed by a noun phrase.
"Because" by itself generally introduces a clause.
Correct sentence:
"The shipment was delayed because of adverse weather conditions."
Q98. Correct Answer: A – He Asked Me If I Had Checked
A yes/no question is reported using "if" or "whether" and statement word order.
The original present perfect is normally backshifted to past perfect in this context.
Q99. Correct Answer: A – Process Restricting Capacity
A bottleneck is a resource or stage that limits the throughput or capacity of a process.
Q100. Correct Answer: C – Hardly Had ... When
The standard construction is:
"Hardly had + subject + past participle ... when ..."
Correct sentence:
"Hardly had the train arrived when the unloading began."
Quick Answer Key – All 100 Questions
| Questions | Correct Options |
|---|---|
| 1–10 | B C D B B B C C B B |
| 11–20 | B D A A C B B B A A |
| 21–30 | D B A A A B B D B B |
| 31–40 | D B C B A A A A D A |
| 41–50 | D C A A A A B A D B |
| 51–60 | C B C C C C D C B B |
| 61–70 | C C C C C D D D A B |
| 71–80 | C B C C D B B B A B |
| 81–90 | C A B C C E E C C B |
| 91–100 | B D B B B C B A A C |
Score Calculation
Final Score = Correct Answers − (Incorrect Answers × 0.25)
Example:
Correct Answers = 75
Incorrect Answers = 20
Unattempted = 5
Final Score:
75 − (20 × 0.25)
= 75 − 5
= 70/100
Suggested Practice Score Analysis
| Score | Preparation Level |
|---|---|
| 85–100 | Excellent |
| 75–84.75 | Very Good |
| 60–74.75 | Good, further revision recommended |
| 45–59.75 | Moderate, improve accuracy and concepts |
| Below 45 | Focus on fundamentals and structured revision |
These are study benchmarks and not official qualifying cutoffs.
Conclusion
CONCOR Management Trainee 2026 Full-Length Mock Test 5 contains 100 fresh, original practice questions across Professional Knowledge, Quantitative Aptitude, General Knowledge, Reasoning Ability and English Language.
The paper places additional emphasis on difficult supply chain scenarios, freight and container calculations, warehousing productivity, commercial pricing, procurement decisions and risk management.
For maximum improvement, review all incorrect answers, identify your weakest topics and practise calculations without referring to the solutions.
Next: CONCOR Management Trainee 2026 – Full-Length Mock Test 6 (Final Mock Test)
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