100 CDS Frequently Asked Questions: Complete GK Guide for CDS 2026



100 CDS Frequently Asked Questions to Crack Your Exam Easily

Are you preparing for the Combined Defence Services (CDS) examination? CDS frequently asked questions are your golden ticket to scoring higher in the General Knowledge section. This comprehensive guide contains 100 carefully curated questions that reflect the actual exam pattern and difficulty level.

The General Knowledge section of CDS demands extensive preparation across multiple domains, including history, geography, science, current affairs, and defence-related topics. CDS frequently asked questions from previous years reveal recurring patterns and important themes that every aspirant must master.

100 CDS Frequently Asked Questions: Complete GK Guide for CDS 2026

Why These CDS Frequently Asked Questions Matter for Your Success

These CDS frequently asked questions have been compiled after thorough analysis of previous year papers. They represent the most tested concepts and topics that appear repeatedly in the examination.

Key Benefits of Practicing These Questions:

  • Pattern Recognition: Understand how questions are framed in the actual exam
  • Time Management: Practice solving 100 questions within a timed environment
  • Concept Clarity: Cover static GK topics in depth
  • Current Affairs Integration: Blend static knowledge with contemporary events
  • Confidence Building: Reduce exam anxiety through thorough preparation

Top 100 CDS Frequently Asked Questions with Detailed Answers

Geography and Environment (Questions 1-15)

Question 1: Cloud Identification

Identify the cloud based on these characteristics:

  • I. They look like cotton wool
  • II. They exist in patches and have flat base
  • III. Generally formed at height of 4 to 7 km

Options:

  • (a) Cirrus
  • (b) Cumulus
  • (c) Nimbus
  • (d) Stratus

Answer: (b) Cumulus

Explanation: Cumulus clouds resemble cotton wool, appear in patches with flat bases, and typically form between 4-7 km altitude. These are among the CDS frequently asked questions on physical geography.

Question 2: Sea Water Salt Composition

Arrange these salts in ascending order according to their presence in sea water:

  1. Calcium Carbonate
  2. Calcium Sulphate
  3. Magnesium Chloride

Options:

  • (a) 3, 1, 2
  • (b) 1, 3, 2
  • (c) 1, 2, 3
  • (d) 2, 1, 3

Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3

Explanation: Sea water salt concentration in ascending order: Calcium Carbonate < Calcium Sulphate < Magnesium Chloride. Understanding this sequence is crucial for CDS frequently asked questions on oceanography.

Question 3: Endangered Mountain Gorillas Habitat

Which location is home to endangered mountain gorillas in Africa?

Options:

  • (a) Mount Kenya
  • (b) Mount Kilimanjaro
  • (c) Ngorongoro Crater
  • (d) Virunga Mountains

Answer: (d) Virunga Mountains

Explanation: The Virunga Mountains, spanning Rwanda, Uganda, and Democratic Republic of Congo, are famous for their endangered mountain gorilla populations.

Question 4: Biosphere Reserves in India

Which Biosphere Reserve spreads over three states?

Options:

  • (a) Dehang Debang
  • (b) Nilgiris
  • (c) Nokrek
  • (d) Seshachalam

Answer: (b) Nilgiris

Explanation: The Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve extends across Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka. This is one of the most important CDS frequently asked questions on Indian geography.

Question 5: River Danube and European Capitals

Which capital city does the Danube NOT flow through?

Options:

  • (a) Belgrade
  • (b) Budapest
  • (c) Prague
  • (d) Vienna

Answer: (c) Prague

Explanation: The Danube flows through four capital cities: Vienna (Austria), Bratislava (Slovakia), Budapest (Hungary), and Belgrade (Serbia). Prague is located on the Vltava River.

Question 6: Pearl River Estuary Location

Which place is situated close to the Pearl River Estuary?

Options:

  • (a) Bangkok
  • (b) Hong Kong
  • (c) Macau
  • (d) Singapore

Answer: (b) Hong Kong

Explanation: Hong Kong is strategically located at the mouth of the Pearl River Estuary in Southern China.

Question 7: Indus River Tributaries

Which tributary of the Indus does NOT originate in the Himalayas?

Options:

  • (a) Gilgit
  • (b) Gomal
  • (c) Hunza
  • (d) Zaskar

Answer: (b) Gomal

Explanation: The Gomal River originates in Afghanistan, while Gilgit, Hunza, and Zaskar originate in the Himalayan region.

Question 8: Mirror Image Formation

If your image appears erect regardless of distance from a mirror, the mirror is likely:

Options:

  • (a) Plane
  • (b) Concave
  • (c) Convex
  • (d) Either plane or convex

Answer: (d) Either plane or convex

Explanation: Both plane and convex mirrors always produce erect images regardless of object distance.

Question 9: Magnetic Field Direction Rule

The rule determining magnetic field direction around a current-carrying conductor is:

Options:

  • (a) Right-hand thumb rule
  • (b) Fleming's left-hand rule
  • (c) Fleming's right-hand rule
  • (d) Hund's rule

Answer: (a) Right-hand thumb rule

Explanation: This rule helps determine the direction of the magnetic field around a straight current-carrying conductor.

Question 10: Harappan Seal Motifs

Which motif does NOT appear on Harappan seals?

Options:

  • (a) Humped Bull
  • (b) Elephant
  • (c) Lion
  • (d) Crocodile

Answer: (d) Crocodile

Explanation: Common Harappan seal motifs include humped bull, elephant, rhinoceros, tiger, and mythical animals. Crocodiles are notably absent.

Question 11: Diamond Mining in Delhi Sultanate

Where was diamond mining carried out during the Delhi Sultanate?

Options:

  • (a) Awadh
  • (b) Khambhat
  • (c) Panna
  • (d) Lakhnauti

Answer: (c) Panna

Explanation: The Panna region in Madhya Pradesh was known for diamond mining during the Delhi Sultanate period.

Question 12: Nucleus-Free Cells

Which cells in the human body lack a nucleus?

Options:

  • (a) Muscle cells
  • (b) Phagocytic cells
  • (c) Red blood cells
  • (d) Ciliated cells

Answer: (c) Red blood cells

Explanation: Mature mammalian red blood cells lack a nucleus to maximize space for hemoglobin.

Question 13: Environmental Problems with Plastics

Which statement about plastics is correct?

Options:

  • (a) They are non-biodegradable
  • (b) They don't get released into water and food
  • (c) They don't have biochemical synthesis activity
  • (d) They are harmless to humans

Answer: (a) They are non-biodegradable

Explanation: The primary environmental concern with plastics is their non-biodegradable nature, causing long-term pollution.

Question 14: Microbodies in Plant and Animal Cells

Microbodies in cells contain:

Options:

  • (a) broken down membranes
  • (b) enzymes
  • (c) acidic fluids
  • (d) waste metabolites

Answer: (b) enzymes

Explanation: Microbodies contain specific enzymes for various metabolic functions in both plant and animal cells.

Question 15: Antibacterial Enzyme in Saliva and Tears

The antibacterial enzyme in saliva and tears is called:

Options:

  • (a) ribozyme
  • (b) lipase
  • (c) lysozyme
  • (d) isomerase

Answer: (c) lysozyme

Explanation: Lysozyme is a natural antibacterial enzyme found in tears, saliva, and other bodily fluids.

Chemistry and Biology (Questions 16-22)

Question 16: Vinegar Composition

Vinegar is a:

Options:

  • (a) 5-8% solution of acetic acid in water
  • (b) 5-8% solution of carbonic acid in water
  • (c) 5-8% solution of ethanol in water
  • (d) 10-15% solution of propionic acid in water

Answer: (a) 5-8% solution of acetic acid in water

Explanation: Vinegar contains 5-8% acetic acid, making it a mild acid widely used in cooking and preservation.

Question 17: Cetane

Which compound is known as cetane?

Options:

  • (а) Hexadecane
  • (b) Heptadecane
  • (c) Octadecane
  • (d) Nonadecane

Answer: (а) Hexadecane

Explanation: Cetane (hexadecane) is used as a standard for measuring the ignition quality of diesel fuel.

Question 18: First Commercial Space Station

Which is the first commercial space station?

Options:

  • (a) Axiom Station
  • (b) International Space Station
  • (c) Galileo
  • (d) Voyager 1

Answer: (a) Axiom Station

Explanation: Axiom Station is planned to be the world's first commercial space station.

Question 19: Arabian Peninsula Countries

Which country is NOT part of the Arabian Peninsula?

Options:

  • (a) Kuwait
  • (b) Oman
  • (c) Jordan
  • (d) Yemen

Answer: (c) Jordan

Explanation: Jordan is located in the Levant region, not on the Arabian Peninsula.

Question 20: Ferromagnetic Materials

Which is NOT a ferromagnetic material?

Options:

  • (a) Cobalt
  • (b) Iron
  • (c) Silver
  • (d) Ferric chloride

Answer: (c) Silver

Explanation: Silver is diamagnetic, while cobalt, iron, and ferric chloride exhibit ferromagnetic properties.

Question 21: Pulse Detection

Pulse is felt due to rhythmic contraction of:

Options:

  • (a) chambers of heart
  • (b) valves in veins
  • (c) aorta and main arteries
  • (d) valves of heart

Answer: (c) aorta and main arteries

Explanation: The pulse is the rhythmic expansion and contraction of arteries due to blood flow from the heart.

Question 22: Egg Denaturation

When eggs are heated, the transparent liquid turns solid and turbid due to denaturation of:

Options:

  • (a) fats
  • (b) proteins
  • (c) ribose sugar
  • (d) carbohydrates

Answer: (b) proteins

Explanation: Egg proteins denature and coagulate when heated, causing the white to become solid and opaque.

Indian History and Culture (Questions 23-30)

Question 23: Koeppen Climate BW Code

What does BW stand for in the Koeppen climate classification?

Options:

  • (a) Steppe climate
  • (b) Desert climate
  • (c) Tundra climate
  • (d) Mesothermal climate

Answer: (b) Desert climate

Explanation: In the Koeppen classification, B represents dry climates, and W indicates desert conditions.

Question 24: Chola King and Sailendra

Which Chola king encouraged the Sailendra ruler to build a Buddhist Vihara at Negapatnam?

Options:

  • (a) Parantaka I
  • (b) Rajaraja I
  • (c) Rajendra I
  • (d) Kulottunga I

Answer: (b) Rajaraja I

Explanation: Rajaraja I, the great Chola ruler, supported the Sailendra king in establishing a Buddhist monastery at Negapatnam.

Question 25: Krishnadevaraya's Court Poets

Who was NOT a court poet of Krishnadevaraya?

Options:

  • (a) Timmana
  • (b) Dhurjati
  • (c) Mallana
  • (d) Siddheshvara

Answer: (d) Siddheshvara

Explanation: The Ashtadiggajas (eight poets) of Krishnadevaraya's court included Timmana, Dhurjati, Mallana, and others, but not Siddheshvara.

Question 26: Royal Portraits at Mamallapuram

The cave temple containing portraits of Simhavishnu and Mahendravarman is:

Options:

  • (a) Varaha Cave
  • (b) Ramanuja Cave
  • (c) Adivaraha Cave
  • (d) Trimurti Cave

Answer: (c) Adivaraha Cave

Explanation: The Adivaraha Cave at Mamallapuram features royal portraits of the Pallava kings Simhavishnu and Mahendravarman.

Question 27: Kashmir Shaivism Founder

Who propounded Kashmir Shaivism?

Options:

  • (a) Vasugupta
  • (b) Abhinavagupta
  • (c) Ramakantha
  • (d) Ranganathacharya

Answer: (a) Vasugupta

Explanation: Vasugupta is traditionally credited with founding the Kashmir Shaivism school of philosophy.

Question 28: Right to Privacy Verdict

Who filed the writ petition for the Right to Privacy verdict?

Options:

  • (a) Justice P. N. Bhagwati
  • (b) Justice Rohinton Fali Nariman
  • (c) Justice K. S. Puttaswamy
  • (d) Justice Anil R. Dave

Answer: (c) Justice K. S. Puttaswamy

Explanation: Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) filed the writ petition leading to the landmark Right to Privacy judgment.

Question 29: Indian Ocean Conference 7th Edition

Where was the 7th edition of the Indian Ocean Conference held?

Options:

  • (a) Dhaka
  • (b) New Delhi
  • (c) Malé
  • (d) Perth

Answer: (c) Malé

Explanation: The 7th Indian Ocean Conference was hosted in Malé, Maldives.

Question 30: Indigenous Assault Rifle by DRDO

Which is an indigenous assault rifle developed by DRDO?

Options:

  • (a) Heckler
  • (b) T91
  • (c) Tikka
  • (d) Ugram

Answer: (d) Ugram

Explanation: Ugram is an indigenous assault rifle developed by DRDO for the Indian armed forces.

Physics and General Science (Questions 31-34)

Question 31: Muscle Cramps After Running

Cramps in thigh muscles after a run are due to accumulation of:

Options:

  • (a) lactic acid
  • (b) CO2
  • (c) pyruvic acid
  • (d) ethanol

Answer: (a) lactic acid

Explanation: During anaerobic respiration, muscles produce lactic acid, causing cramps and pain.

Question 32: Power of a Lens

The power of a lens with focal length 10 cm is:

Options:

  • (a) 0.1 dioptre
  • (b) 1 dioptre
  • (c) 10 dioptre
  • (d) 100 dioptre

Answer: (c) 10 dioptre

Explanation: Power (P) = 1/f (in meters) = 1/0.1 = 10 dioptres.

Question 33: Electrical Energy Consumption

A 100 W bulb used for 10 hours daily consumes how many units in 3 days?

Options:

  • (a) 3.00
  • (b) 1.08
  • (c) 2.16
  • (d) 0.33

Answer: (a) 3.00

Calculation: 100 W × 10 hours = 1000 Wh = 1 unit per day. In 3 days = 3 units.

Question 34: Velocity-Time Graph Interpretation

The area under a velocity-time graph gives:

Options:

  • (a) its average velocity
  • (b) its net displacement
  • (c) the distance travelled by it
  • (d) its average speed

Answer: (b) its net displacement

Explanation: The area under the velocity-time graph represents the displacement of the particle.

Economics and Polity (Questions 35-36)

Question 35: Deficit Spending Impact

Contraction of private investment due to government deficit spending is called:

Options:

  • (a) crowding out
  • (b) crowding in
  • (c) pump priming
  • (d) dumping

Answer: (a) crowding out

Explanation: Crowding out occurs when government borrowing reduces private sector investment opportunities.

Question 36: Social Justice Bench

Which Chief Justice ordered the constitution of a 'Social Justice Bench'?

Options:

  • (a) Justice H. L. Dattu
  • (b) Justice K. G. Balakrishnan
  • (c) Justice R. M. Lodha
  • (d) Justice Y. K. Sabharwal

Answer: (a) Justice H. L. Dattu

Explanation: Justice H. L. Dattu, as Chief Justice of India, constituted the Social Justice Bench.

Defence and Current Affairs (Questions 37-40)

Question 37: Bandi Jivan Author

Who wrote the book Bandi Jivan?

Options:

  • (a) Rash Behari Bose
  • (b) Veer Savarkar
  • (c) Aruna Asaf Ali
  • (d) Sachindranath Sanyal

Answer: (d) Sachindranath Sanyal

Explanation: Sachindranath Sanyal wrote 'Bandi Jivan' while imprisoned in the Cellular Jail.

Question 38: Paramilitary Force with Dual Control

Which paramilitary force has a dual control structure?

Options:

  • (a) Central Reserve Police Force
  • (b) Assam Rifles
  • (c) Indo-Tibetan Border Police
  • (d) Central Industrial Security Force

Answer: (b) Assam Rifles

Explanation: Assam Rifles operates under dual control of the Ministry of Home Affairs and Ministry of Defence.

Question 39: Ethnic Community of Assam

Which is an ethnic community of Assam?

Options:

  • (a) Bhil
  • (b) Gond
  • (c) Ahom
  • (d) Adi

Answer: (c) Ahom

Explanation: The Ahom community is an important ethnic group native to Assam.

Question 40: Chevrons Cricket Team

Chevrons is the cricket team name of which country?

Options:

  • (a) Australia
  • (b) The Netherlands
  • (c) Ireland
  • (d) Zimbabwe

Answer: (d) Zimbabwe

Explanation: Zimbabwe's cricket team is nicknamed the Chevrons.

Biology and Human Body (Questions 41-42)

Question 41: RNA Locations in Plant Cells

RNA is present in plant cells in:

Options:

  • (a) cytoplasm only
  • (b) nuclei and cytoplasm only
  • (c) nuclei, cytoplasm, mitochondria, chloroplast and endoplasmic reticulum
  • (d) nuclei, cytoplasm, mitochondria, chloroplast and ribosomes

Answer: (d) nuclei, cytoplasm, mitochondria, chloroplast and ribosomes

Explanation: RNA is found in various organelles including nuclei, cytoplasm, mitochondria, chloroplasts, and ribosomes.

Question 42: Country Identification

Which country has Stewart Island, Bay of Plenty, and Hawke Bay?

Options:

  • (a) Canada
  • (b) Australia
  • (c) New Zealand
  • (d) Ireland

Answer: (c) New Zealand

Explanation: These geographical features are located in New Zealand.

Military Exercises and International Relations (Questions 43-44)

Question 43: Exercise Garuda Shakti

Which country conducted Exercise Garuda Shakti with India?

Options:

  • (a) Japan
  • (b) Indonesia
  • (c) Bhutan
  • (d) Myanmar

Answer: (b) Indonesia

Explanation: Garuda Shakti is a bilateral exercise between Indian and Indonesian special forces.

Question 44: Congress Dissolution Proposal

Who suggested dissolving INC and replacing it with Lok Sevak Sangh?

Options:

  • (a) Vallabhbhai Patel
  • (b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
  • (c) M. K. Gandhi
  • (d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer: (c) M. K. Gandhi

Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi proposed the dissolution of the Indian National Congress and formation of a Lok Sevak Sangh.

Ancient Indian History (Questions 45-47)

Question 45: Kushana Kinship Evidence

The Kushana rulers' kinship concept is best evidenced through:

Options:

  • (a) Their identification with deities
  • (b) Grants to religious institutions
  • (c) Inscriptional panegyrics
  • (d) Coins and sculpture

Answer: (c) Inscriptional panegyrics

Explanation: Inscriptional panegyrics provide detailed evidence of Kushana kinship ideology.

Question 46: Theris in Ancient India

Who were referred to as Theris in ancient India?

Options:

  • (a) Respected women
  • (b) Elder nuns in Buddhism
  • (c) Women denied Bhikkhuni status
  • (d) Women expelled from Buddhist Sangha

Answer: (b) Elder nuns in Buddhism

Explanation: Theris were senior Buddhist nuns or elder women in the Buddhist monastic order.

Question 47: Seva Samiti Founder

Who founded the Seva Samiti at Allahabad in 1914?

Options:

  • (a) Shri Ram Bajpai
  • (b) Hriday Nath Kunzru
  • (c) S. G. Vaze
  • (d) Srinivas Shastri

Answer: (b) Hriday Nath Kunzru

Explanation: Hriday Nath Kunzru founded the Seva Samiti at Allahabad in 1914.

Sports and Literature (Questions 48-50)

Question 48: FIFA World Cup Record

Which country has won the maximum FIFA World Cups?

Options:

  • (a) Argentina
  • (b) Brazil
  • (c) France
  • (d) Spain

Answer: (b) Brazil

Explanation: Brazil has won the FIFA World Cup five times (1958, 1962, 1970, 1994, 2002).

Question 49: City of Joy Author

Who wrote the famous novel City of Joy?

Options:

  • (a) Larry Collins
  • (b) Dominique Lapierre
  • (c) Rudyard Kipling
  • (d) Mark Tully

Answer: (b) Dominique Lapierre

Explanation: Dominique Lapierre wrote the novel 'City of Joy,' set in Kolkata.

Question 50: First Anglo-Maratha War Conclusion

The First Anglo-Maratha War ended with:

Options:

  • (a) The Treaty of Surat
  • (b) The Treaty of Purandar
  • (c) The Convention of Wadgaon
  • (d) The Treaty of Salbai

Answer: (d) The Treaty of Salbai

Explanation: The First Anglo-Maratha War concluded with the Treaty of Salbai in 1782.

Additional 50 CDS Frequently Asked Questions for Complete Preparation

Geography and Environment (Questions 51-65)

Question 51: Sorrow of Bengal

Which river is known as the "Sorrow of Bengal"?

Options:

  • (a) Ganges
  • (b) Damodar
  • (c) Brahmaputra
  • (d) Mahanadi

Answer: (b) Damodar

Explanation: The Damodar River is called the "Sorrow of Bengal" due to its frequent devastating floods.

Question 52: Tropic of Cancer Latitude

What is the latitude of Tropic of Cancer?

Options:

  • (a) 23.5° North
  • (b) 23.5° South
  • (c) 66.5° North
  • (d) 66.5° South

Answer: (a) 23.5° North

Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer passes through India at approximately 23.5° North latitude.

Question 53: Largest Freshwater Lake in India

Which is the largest freshwater lake in India?

Options:

  • (a) Dal Lake
  • (b) Chilika Lake
  • (c) Wular Lake
  • (d) Sambhar Lake

Answer: (c) Wular Lake

Explanation: Wular Lake in Jammu & Kashmir is India's largest freshwater lake.

Question 54: Sundarbans Delta Location

Where is the Sundarbans delta located?

Options:

  • (a) West Bengal and Bangladesh
  • (b) Odisha and West Bengal
  • (c) Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
  • (d) Kerala and Karnataka

Answer: (a) West Bengal and Bangladesh

Explanation: The Sundarbans delta is formed by the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers across India and Bangladesh.

Question 55: Capital of Sikkim

What is the capital of Sikkim?

Options:

  • (a) Darjeeling
  • (b) Gangtok
  • (c) Shillong
  • (d) Itanagar

Answer: (b) Gangtok

Explanation: Gangtok is the capital city of Sikkim, located in the Eastern Himalayas.

Question 56: Longest Coastline in India

Which state has the longest coastline in India?

Options:

  • (a) Tamil Nadu
  • (b) Maharashtra
  • (c) Gujarat
  • (d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer: (c) Gujarat

Explanation: Gujarat has the longest coastline in India, extending approximately 1,600 km.

Question 57: Grand Canyon River

Which river flows through the Grand Canyon?

Options:

  • (a) Mississippi River
  • (b) Colorado River
  • (c) Missouri River
  • (d) Rio Grande

Answer: (b) Colorado River

Explanation: The Colorado River carved the Grand Canyon in Arizona, USA.

Question 58: Highest Plateau in the World

What is the highest plateau in the world?

Options:

  • (a) Deccan Plateau
  • (b) Tibetan Plateau
  • (c) Ethiopian Plateau
  • (d) Bolivian Plateau

Answer: (b) Tibetan Plateau

Explanation: The Tibetan Plateau, also called the "Roof of the World," is the highest and largest plateau.

Question 59: Atacama Desert Location

Where is the Atacama Desert located?

Options:

  • (a) Argentina
  • (b) Chile
  • (c) Peru
  • (d) Brazil

Answer: (b) Chile

Explanation: The Atacama Desert in Chile is one of the driest places on Earth.

Question 60: Country with Most Islands

Which country has the most islands?

Options:

  • (a) Indonesia
  • (b) Philippines
  • (c) Sweden
  • (d) Japan

Answer: (c) Sweden

Explanation: Sweden has approximately 267,570 islands, the most of any country.

Question 61: Deepest Point in the Ocean

What is the deepest point in the ocean?

Options:

  • (a) Mariana Trench
  • (b) Java Trench
  • (c) Tonga Trench
  • (d) Puerto Rico Trench

Answer: (a) Mariana Trench

Explanation: The Mariana Trench in the Pacific Ocean reaches a depth of about 11,000 meters (Challenger Deep).

Question 62: Ganges of the South

Which river is known as the "Ganges of the South"?

Options:

  • (a) Krishna
  • (b) Godavari
  • (c) Kaveri
  • (d) Mahanadi

Answer: (b) Godavari

Explanation: The Godavari River is often called the "Ganges of the South" or "Dakshin Ganga."

Question 63: Valley of Flowers National Park

Where is the Valley of Flowers National Park?

Options:

  • (a) Himachal Pradesh
  • (b) Uttarakhand
  • (c) Sikkim
  • (d) Jammu & Kashmir

Answer: (b) Uttarakhand

Explanation: The Valley of Flowers is a UNESCO World Heritage site in Uttarakhand.

Question 64: Largest Lake in Africa

Which is the largest lake in Africa?

Options:

  • (a) Lake Tanganyika
  • (b) Lake Victoria
  • (c) Lake Malawi
  • (d) Lake Chad

Answer: (b) Lake Victoria

Explanation: Lake Victoria is the largest lake in Africa by surface area.

Question 65: Capital of Bhutan

What is the capital of Bhutan?

Options:

  • (a) Kathmandu
  • (b) Thimphu
  • (c) Paro
  • (d) Dhaka

Answer: (b) Thimphu

Explanation: Thimphu is the capital and largest city of Bhutan.

Indian History and Culture (Questions 66-80)

Question 66: Founder of the Mauryan Empire

Who founded the Mauryan Empire?

Options:

  • (a) Ashoka
  • (b) Chandragupta Maurya
  • (c) Bindusara
  • (d) Harsha

Answer: (b) Chandragupta Maurya

Explanation: Chandragupta Maurya established the Mauryan Empire in 322 BCE.

Question 67: Ajanta Caves Location

Where are the Ajanta Caves located?

Options:

  • (a) Bihar
  • (b) Maharashtra
  • (c) Uttar Pradesh
  • (d) Rajasthan

Answer: (b) Maharashtra

Explanation: The Ajanta Caves are located in Aurangabad district, Maharashtra.

Question 68: Mahabharata Author

Who wrote the Mahabharata?

Options:

  • (a) Valmiki
  • (b) Ved Vyasa
  • (c) Kalidas
  • (d) Tulsidas

Answer: (b) Ved Vyasa

Explanation: According to tradition, Ved Vyasa composed the Mahabharata epic.

Question 69: Capital of the Gupta Empire

What was the capital of the Gupta Empire?

Options:

  • (a) Ujjain
  • (b) Pataliputra
  • (c) Mathura
  • (d) Ayodhya

Answer: (b) Pataliputra (Modern Patna)

Explanation: Pataliputra served as the capital of the Gupta Empire during its golden age.

Question 70: Taj Mahal Builder

Who built the Taj Mahal?

Options:

  • (a) Akbar
  • (b) Jahangir
  • (c) Shah Jahan
  • (d) Aurangzeb

Answer: (c) Shah Jahan

Explanation: The Taj Mahal was commissioned by Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan in 1632.

Question 71: Founder of Amritsar

Which ruler founded the city of Amritsar?

Options:

  • (a) Guru Nanak
  • (b) Guru Ram Das
  • (c) Guru Arjan Dev
  • (d) Guru Gobind Singh

Answer: (b) Guru Ram Das

Explanation: Guru Ram Das, the fourth Sikh Guru, founded Amritsar in 1577.

Question 72: Golden Temple Location

Where is the Golden Temple located?

Options:

  • (a) Amritsar, Punjab
  • (b) Anandpur Sahib
  • (c) Nanded
  • (d) Delhi

Answer: (a) Amritsar, Punjab

Explanation: The Golden Temple (Harmandir Sahib) is located in Amritsar, Punjab.

Question 73: First Ruler of Delhi Sultanate

Who was the first ruler of the Delhi Sultanate?

Options:

  • (a) Iltutmish
  • (b) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
  • (c) Alauddin Khilji
  • (d) Balban

Answer: (b) Qutb-ud-din Aibak

Explanation: Qutb-ud-din Aibak founded the Delhi Sultanate in 1206 CE.

Question 74: Capital of the Chola Empire

What was the capital of the Chola Empire?

Options:

  • (a) Madurai
  • (b) Thanjavur
  • (c) Kanchipuram
  • (d) Tiruchirappalli

Answer: (b) Thanjavur

Explanation: Thanjavur served as the capital of the Chola Empire for many centuries.

Question 75: Builders of Khajuraho Temples

Who built the Khajuraho temples?

Options:

  • (a) Chandelas
  • (b) Chalukyas
  • (c) Paramaras
  • (d) Pratiharas

Answer: (a) Chandela dynasty

Explanation: The Khajuraho temples were built by the Chandela rulers between 950-1050 CE.

Question 76: Sun Temple Location

Where is the Sun Temple located?

Options:

  • (a) Khajuraho
  • (b) Konark, Odisha
  • (c) Modhera
  • (d) Martand

Answer: (b) Konark, Odisha

Explanation: The Sun Temple at Konark is a famous 13th-century temple in Odisha.

Question 77: Last Mughal Ruler

Who was the last Mughal ruler?

Options:

  • (a) Aurangzeb
  • (b) Bahadur Shah Zafar
  • (c) Shah Alam II
  • (d) Muhammad Shah

Answer: (b) Bahadur Shah II (Bahadur Shah Zafar)

Explanation: Bahadur Shah II was the last Mughal emperor, exiled to Burma in 1858.

Question 78: Capital of Vijayanagara Empire

What was the capital of Vijayanagara Empire?

Options:

  • (a) Vijayanagara (Hampi)
  • (b) Mysore
  • (c) Srirangapatna
  • (d) Gwalior

Answer: (a) Vijayanagara (Hampi)

Explanation: Hampi in Karnataka was the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire.

Question 79: Founder of the Sikh Empire

Who founded the Sikh Empire?

Options:

  • (a) Guru Gobind Singh
  • (b) Maharaja Ranjit Singh
  • (c) Hari Singh Nalwa
  • (d) Duleep Singh

Answer: (b) Maharaja Ranjit Singh

Explanation: Maharaja Ranjit Singh established the Sikh Empire in 1801.

Question 80: Dilwara Temples Location

Where are the Dilwara Temples located?

Options:

  • (a) Abu Road, Rajasthan
  • (b) Mount Abu, Rajasthan
  • (c) Palitana, Gujarat
  • (d) Ranakpur, Rajasthan

Answer: (b) Mount Abu, Rajasthan

Explanation: The Dilwara Temples are located in Mount Abu, Rajasthan.

Science and Technology (Questions 81-95)

Question 81: Vitamin from Sunlight

Which vitamin is produced by sunlight?

Options:

  • (a) Vitamin A
  • (b) Vitamin B12
  • (c) Vitamin C
  • (d) Vitamin D

Answer: (d) Vitamin D

Explanation: Sunlight helps the body synthesize Vitamin D in the skin.

Question 82: Hardest Natural Substance

What is the hardest natural substance?

Options:

  • (a) Diamond
  • (b) Graphite
  • (c) Corundum
  • (d) Topaz

Answer: (a) Diamond

Explanation: Diamond is the hardest known natural material.

Question 83: Speed of Light

What is the speed of light?

Options:

  • (a) 3 × 10⁶ m/s
  • (b) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
  • (c) 3 × 10¹⁰ m/s
  • (d) 3 × 10¹² m/s

Answer: (b) 3 × 10⁸ m/s

Explanation: The speed of light in vacuum is approximately 299,792,458 meters per second.

Question 84: Blood Filtering Organ

Which organ filters blood in the human body?

Options:

  • (a) Liver
  • (b) Kidney
  • (c) Spleen
  • (d) Lungs

Answer: (b) Kidney

Explanation: Kidneys filter blood and remove waste products from the body.

Question 85: Chemical Symbol for Gold

What is the chemical symbol for gold?

Options:

  • (a) Au
  • (b) Ag
  • (c) Fe
  • (d) Gd

Answer: (a) Au

Explanation: Gold's chemical symbol Au comes from the Latin word "Aurum."

Question 86: Largest Gland in Human Body

Which is the largest gland in the human body?

Options:

  • (a) Pancreas
  • (b) Thyroid
  • (c) Liver
  • (d) Pituitary

Answer: (c) Liver

Explanation: The liver is the largest internal organ and gland in the human body.

Question 87: pH of Pure Water

What is the pH of pure water?

Options:

  • (a) 5
  • (b) 6
  • (c) 7
  • (d) 8

Answer: (c) 7

Explanation: Pure water has a neutral pH of 7.

Question 88: Essential Element for Bone Formation

Which element is essential for bone formation?

Options:

  • (a) Iron
  • (b) Calcium
  • (c) Potassium
  • (d) Sodium

Answer: (b) Calcium

Explanation: Calcium is crucial for building and maintaining strong bones.

Question 89: Nearest Star to Earth

What is the nearest star to Earth?

Options:

  • (a) Alpha Centauri
  • (b) Sun
  • (c) Proxima Centauri
  • (d) Sirius

Answer: (b) Sun

Explanation: The Sun is the closest star to Earth, approximately 150 million km away.

Question 90: Largest Planet in the Solar System

Which is the largest planet in the solar system?

Options:

  • (a) Saturn
  • (b) Jupiter
  • (c) Neptune
  • (d) Uranus

Answer: (b) Jupiter

Explanation: Jupiter is the largest planet in our solar system.

Question 91: Chemical Formula of Common Salt

What is the chemical formula of common salt?

Options:

  • (a) KCl
  • (b) NaCl
  • (c) NaHCO₃
  • (d) NaOH

Answer: (b) NaCl

Explanation: Common salt is sodium chloride (NaCl).

Question 92: Insulin Producing Organ

Which organ produces insulin?

Options:

  • (a) Liver
  • (b) Pancreas
  • (c) Thyroid
  • (d) Pituitary

Answer: (b) Pancreas

Explanation: The pancreas produces insulin, which regulates blood sugar levels.

Question 93: Largest Organ in Human Body

What is the largest organ in the human body?

Options:

  • (a) Liver
  • (b) Skin
  • (c) Brain
  • (d) Lungs

Answer: (b) Skin

Explanation: The skin is the largest organ, covering approximately 2 square meters.

Question 94: Most Abundant Gas in the Atmosphere

Which gas is most abundant in the atmosphere?

Options:

  • (a) Oxygen
  • (b) Carbon Dioxide
  • (c) Nitrogen
  • (d) Argon

Answer: (c) Nitrogen

Explanation: Nitrogen comprises about 78% of Earth's atmosphere.

Question 95: Freezing Point of Water in Fahrenheit

What is the freezing point of water in Fahrenheit?

Options:

  • (a) 0°F
  • (b) 32°F
  • (c) 212°F
  • (d) 100°F

Answer: (b) 32°F

Explanation: Water freezes at 32°F (0°C).

Current Affairs and Defence (Questions 96-100)

Question 96: India's Population Rank

What is the rank of India in terms of population?

Options:

  • (a) 1st
  • (b) 2nd
  • (c) 3rd
  • (d) 4th

Answer: (a) 1st

Explanation: India became the world's most populous country in 2023.

Question 97: Sentinels of the Eastern Himalayas

Which force is known as the "Sentinels of the Eastern Himalayas"?

Options:

  • (a) BSF
  • (b) ITBP
  • (c) SSB
  • (d) CRPF

Answer: (b) Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)

Explanation: ITBP is deployed along India's border with China in the Himalayas.

Question 98: Indian Air Force Motto

What is the motto of the Indian Air Force?

Options:

  • (a) "Touch the Sky with Glory"
  • (b) "Service Before Self"
  • (c) "Duty, Honour, Country"
  • (d) "Freedom in the Skies"

Answer: (a) "Touch the Sky with Glory"

Explanation: The IAF's motto is derived from the Bhagavad Gita.

Question 99: National Defence Academy Location

Where is the National Defence Academy located?

Options:

  • (a) Dehradun
  • (b) Khadakwasla, Pune
  • (c) Secunderabad
  • (d) Chennai

Answer: (b) Khadakwasla, Pune

Explanation: The NDA is located near Pune, Maharashtra.

Question 100: CDS Recruitment Age

What is the annual recruitment age for CDS?

Options:

  • (a) 19-24 years
  • (b) 18-25 years
  • (c) 20-26 years
  • (d) 21-27 years

Answer: (a) 19-24 years (varies by academy)

Explanation: CDS eligibility age is typically 19-24 years, with variations for different academies.

How to Effectively Practice These CDS Frequently Asked Questions

Strategic Preparation Approach

Mastering CDS frequently asked questions requires a systematic approach:

  • Daily Practice Routine: Solve 20 questions daily with a strict timer
  • Topic-wise Analysis: Identify your strengths and weaknesses
  • Revision Strategy: Review incorrect answers thoroughly
  • Current Affairs Integration: Connect static GK with recent developments
  • Mock Test Simulation: Practice in exam-like conditions

Common Mistakes to Avoid

  • Skipping Revision: Regular review is essential for retention
  • Over-Reliance on One Source: Use multiple resources for comprehensive preparation
  • Ignoring Current Affairs: Static GK alone isn't sufficient for modern CDS patterns
  • Not Practicing Enough MCQs: Theory alone won't help in the exam
  • Memorizing Without Understanding: Focus on conceptual clarity

Boost Your Preparation with Additional Resources

Recommended Study Materials for CDS GK

  • NCERT Textbooks: Classes 6-12 for History, Geography, Science, and Polity
  • Standard Reference Books: Lucent's GK, Spectrum Modern History
  • Current Affairs Magazines: Monthly compilations from reliable sources
  • Previous Year Papers: Essential for understanding the exam pattern
  • Online Mock Tests: Simulate real exam conditions

Important Links for CDS Preparation

Check out these valuable resources for comprehensive preparation:

Why These CDS Frequently Asked Questions Are Your Best Bet

These CDS frequently asked questions have been carefully selected from previous year papers and expert analysis. They represent the core of what you need to know for your CDS 2026 examination.

What Makes These Questions Special:

  • High Probability of Repetition: Many questions follow recurring patterns
  • Comprehensive Coverage: All important topics are included
  • Exam-Level Difficulty: Questions match the actual exam standard
  • Conceptual Depth: Understanding answers enhances overall knowledge
  • Time-Tested Content: Validated by successful CDS candidates

Final Preparation Tips for CDS 2026

One Month Before Exam

  • Focus on revision of all CDS frequently asked questions
  • Attempt at least 5 full-length mock tests
  • Review mistakes and weak areas systematically
  • Maintain a separate notebook for difficult concepts
  • Stay updated with current affairs

One Week Before Exam

  • Practice only previous year questions
  • Time yourself strictly during practice
  • Focus on accuracy rather than speed
  • Take adequate rest and maintain a healthy routine
  • Review important formulas and dates

On Exam Day

  • Read questions carefully before marking answers
  • Use elimination technique for uncertain questions
  • Don't spend too much time on any single question
  • Maintain calm and avoid panic
  • Double-check your answers if time permits

Conclusion

Mastering these CDS frequently asked questions will significantly boost your confidence and performance in the General Knowledge section. The 100 questions covered in this guide represent the essential knowledge areas tested in the examination.

Remember, success in CDS requires not just knowledge but also strategic preparation, consistent practice, and smart revision. Use this comprehensive guide as your foundation and build upon it with additional practice and current affairs updates.

Start your preparation today and aim for excellence in CDS 2026!

Note: This guide is regularly updated to reflect the latest exam patterns and current affairs. For the most recent updates, visit Pratap Solution.

Frequently Asked Questions About CDS Preparation

Q1: How many questions come from GK in CDS?

A: The CDS General Knowledge section typically contains 100 questions for 100 marks.

Q2: What is the best strategy for CDS GK preparation?

A: Focus on NCERT basics, solve previous year questions, read daily newspapers, and practice mock tests.

Q3: Are these CDS frequently asked questions enough for preparation?

A: These questions form a strong foundation, but should be supplemented with current affairs and additional practice.

Q4: How much time should I allocate to GK preparation?

A: Dedicate at least 2 hours daily to GK preparation and revision.

Q5: Is studying from these questions sufficient for the CDS exam?

A: While these questions cover important topics, comprehensive preparation requires additional study materials and regular practice.