CONCOR Management Trainee Marketing Full Length Mock Test 2026
Full-Length CBT Practice Set – 100 Questions | 100 Marks
For Management Trainee: Marketing / Commercial & Operations-oriented preparation
Disclaimer: This is a practice/mock test prepared for candidates based on the notified CONCOR CBT structure and relevant syllabus areas. It is not an official CONCOR question paper or official mock test.
Latest CBT Pattern
| Section | Questions | Marks |
|---|---|---|
| Professional Knowledge – Marketing | 50 | 50 |
| English Language | 10 | 10 |
| Reasoning | 10 | 10 |
| Quantitative Aptitude | 15 | 15 |
| General Knowledge | 15 | 15 |
| Total | 100 | 100 |
Time: 90 Minutes
Negative Marking: 0.25 mark for every wrong answer
Options: 5 per question
How to Attempt
Treat this exactly like the CBT.
- Set a 90-minute timer.
- Do not check the answer key while solving.
- Attempt all 100 questions first.
- Each correct answer = +1
- Each wrong answer = −0.25
- Unattempted = 0
Score Formula: Score = Correct Answers − (Wrong Answers × 0.25)
Part A: Professional Knowledge (MARKETING)
Questions 1–50
Marketing Management, STP, Product, Branding, Pricing, Promotion, Digital Marketing, B2B & Logistics
Q1. The marketing concept primarily emphasizes:
A. Producing as much as possible
B. Aggressive selling
C. Identifying and satisfying customer needs profitably
D. Reducing product variety
E. Maximizing inventory
Q2. Which marketing philosophy is most strongly associated with the belief that consumers prefer products that are widely available and affordable?
A. Product concept
B. Selling concept
C. Marketing concept
D. Production concept
E. Societal marketing concept
Q3. A company redesigns its container-tracking service after discovering that exporters increasingly demand real-time visibility. This reflects:
A. Production orientation
B. Product orientation
C. Market orientation
D. Selling orientation
E. Financial orientation
Q4. Which of the following belongs to the micro-environment of a company?
A. Inflation
B. Political instability
C. Suppliers
D. Demographic change
E. Technological development
Q5. PESTLE analysis is primarily used to study:
A. Internal employee performance
B. Macro-environmental factors
C. Product profitability only
D. Customer satisfaction only
E. Distribution margins
Q6. The correct STP sequence is:
A. Targeting → Segmentation → Positioning
B. Positioning → Targeting → Segmentation
C. Segmentation → Targeting → Positioning
D. Segmentation → Positioning → Targeting
E. Targeting → Positioning → Segmentation
Q7. Dividing exporters into groups based on shipment volume is an example of:
A. Geographic segmentation
B. Demographic segmentation
C. Behavioural segmentation
D. Psychographic segmentation
E. Undifferentiated marketing
Q8. Selecting large exporters as the primary customer group is an example of:
A. Segmentation
B. Targeting
C. Positioning
D. Differentiation
E. Branding
Q9. Creating the perception that a logistics service is "the most reliable solution for time-sensitive cargo" represents:
A. Segmentation
B. Targeting
C. Positioning
D. Market penetration
E. Product deletion
Q10. Which of the following is NOT a traditional 4P?
A. Product
B. Price
C. Place
D. Promotion
E. People
Q11. The fundamental benefit that a customer actually purchases is called:
A. Actual product
B. Core product
C. Augmented product
D. Product line
E. Product mix
Q12. Warranty, installation and after-sales support are examples of:
A. Core product
B. Actual product
C. Augmented product
D. Product line
E. Product width
Q13. The number of different product lines offered by a company represents product mix:
A. Depth
B. Width
C. Length
D. Consistency
E. Density
Q14. Adding a lower-priced service to an existing product line is known as:
A. Upward stretching
B. Downward stretching
C. Line deletion
D. Brand dilution
E. Market skimming
Q15. The correct Product Life Cycle sequence is:
A. Growth → Introduction → Maturity → Decline
B. Introduction → Growth → Maturity → Decline
C. Introduction → Maturity → Growth → Decline
D. Development → Growth → Maturity → Introduction
E. Growth → Maturity → Introduction → Decline
Q16. During the maturity stage of PLC, a company is most likely to focus on:
A. Market modification and differentiation
B. Idea generation only
C. Product launch only
D. Eliminating all promotion
E. Entering the market for the first time
Q17. The first major step in New Product Development is generally:
A. Commercialization
B. Test marketing
C. Idea generation
D. Product launch
E. Harvesting
Q18. The purpose of idea screening is to:
A. Generate unlimited ideas
B. Eliminate unsuitable ideas
C. Launch every idea
D. Fix advertising budgets
E. Determine warehouse capacity
Q19. Brand equity broadly represents:
A. Physical value of packaging
B. Value associated with a brand in the customer's mind and marketplace
C. Number of employees
D. Production cost
E. Warehouse capacity
Q20. Brand awareness refers to a customer's ability to:
A. Calculate product cost
B. Recognize or recall a brand
C. Negotiate with suppliers
D. Determine market share
E. Design packaging
Q21. Using an existing successful brand name for a product in a new category is:
A. Line extension
B. Brand extension
C. Brand dilution
D. Product deletion
E. Repositioning
Q22. Introducing a new size of an existing product under the same brand is:
A. Brand extension
B. Line extension
C. Co-branding
D. Brand licensing
E. Diversification
Q23. The use of two established brand names on one offering is:
A. Co-branding
B. Brand dilution
C. Product harvesting
D. Line filling
E. Market development
Q24. A potential disadvantage of excessive brand extension is:
A. Brand dilution
B. Guaranteed loyalty
C. Guaranteed market share
D. Elimination of competition
E. Lower awareness in every case
Q25. Which pricing method starts with the customer's perceived value?
A. Cost-plus pricing
B. Value-based pricing
C. Competitor-based pricing
D. Mark-up pricing
E. Transfer pricing
Q26. A company launches a new differentiated service at a high initial price and gradually lowers it. This is:
A. Penetration pricing
B. Price skimming
C. Economy pricing
D. Cost-plus pricing
E. Competitive parity pricing
Q27. A low introductory price intended to quickly gain market share represents:
A. Price skimming
B. Penetration pricing
C. Prestige pricing
D. Premium pricing
E. Psychological pricing
Q28. If fixed cost is ₹2,00,000 and contribution per unit is ₹40, the break-even quantity is:
A. 2,500 units
B. 4,000 units
C. 5,000 units
D. 8,000 units
E. 10,000 units
Q29. Which promotional tool involves direct interaction between salesperson and customer?
A. Advertising
B. Public relations
C. Personal selling
D. Publicity
E. Sponsorship
Q30. Coupons, contests and limited-period discounts are examples of:
A. Advertising
B. Sales promotion
C. Public relations
D. Personal selling
E. Market research
Q31. In the AIDA model, the correct sequence is:
A. Attention → Interest → Desire → Action
B. Action → Interest → Desire → Attention
C. Interest → Attention → Action → Desire
D. Desire → Attention → Interest → Action
E. Attention → Desire → Interest → Action
Q32. A pull strategy primarily attempts to:
A. Create customer demand that encourages intermediaries to stock the product
B. Force distributors to purchase inventory
C. Eliminate advertising
D. Reduce consumer awareness
E. Increase warehouse costs
Q33. SEO primarily aims to:
A. Improve organic search visibility
B. Increase warehouse space
C. Reduce production costs
D. Manage employees
E. Calculate taxes
Q34. Which is an example of on-page SEO?
A. Backlink acquisition
B. Optimizing title tags and content
C. Influencer sponsorship only
D. Supplier negotiation
E. Trade fair participation
Q35. PPC stands for:
A. Product Promotion Campaign
B. Pay Per Click
C. Price Per Customer
D. Paid Product Conversion
E. Promotional Performance Cost
Q36. If an advertisement receives 400 clicks from 20,000 impressions, its CTR is:
A. 0.5%
B. 1%
C. 2%
D. 4%
E. 5%
Q37. CRM primarily aims to:
A. Build and manage long-term customer relationships
B. Eliminate customer data
C. Reduce customer interaction
D. Increase inventory only
E. Replace logistics operations
Q38. Customer Lifetime Value estimates:
A. Total potential value generated by a customer over the relationship
B. Customer's age
C. Cost of one advertisement
D. Product manufacturing cost
E. Warehouse value
Q39. Selling a complementary service to an existing customer is:
A. Up-selling
B. Cross-selling
C. Down-selling
D. Market penetration
E. Product harvesting
Q40. Encouraging a customer to move from a basic service package to a premium package is:
A. Cross-selling
B. Up-selling
C. Market segmentation
D. Product deletion
E. Reverse marketing
Q41. B2B demand is called derived demand because:
A. It is unrelated to consumer demand
B. It is often influenced by demand further down the supply chain
C. It is always government-controlled
D. It depends only on advertising
E. It never fluctuates
Q42. The group of people involved in an organizational purchase decision is called:
A. Buying centre
B. Sales centre
C. Market centre
D. Distribution centre
E. Service centre
Q43. In organizational buying, the person who controls access to information reaching decision-makers is:
A. User
B. Buyer
C. Gatekeeper
D. Decider
E. Initiator
Q44. Logistics management primarily concerns:
A. Movement and storage of goods and related information
B. Advertising only
C. Product branding only
D. Market research only
E. Financial accounting only
Q45. Transportation primarily creates:
A. Time utility
B. Place utility
C. Form utility
D. Ownership utility
E. Promotional utility
Q46. Warehousing primarily contributes to:
A. Time utility
B. Brand equity
C. Product differentiation
D. Market segmentation
E. Promotion
Q47. Supply Chain Management is broader than logistics because SCM:
A. Deals only with transportation
B. Integrates suppliers, producers, distributors and customers
C. Excludes suppliers
D. Focuses only on warehousing
E. Eliminates information flow
Q48. The bullwhip effect refers to:
A. Large upstream fluctuations caused by relatively small demand changes
B. Reduction in transportation cost
C. Elimination of inventory
D. Stable supply
E. Product standardization
Q49. An Inland Container Depot is primarily associated with:
A. Inland handling and processing of containerized cargo
B. Consumer advertising
C. Product manufacturing only
D. Retail selling
E. Brand management
Q50. For a B2B container logistics company, the strongest customer value proposition is most likely:
A. Lowest price irrespective of service quality
B. Reliable connectivity, visibility, service quality and customer support
C. Maximum advertising irrespective of operations
D. Large product variety only
E. Premium branding without operational capability
Part B: English Language
Questions 51–60
Q51. Choose the word closest in meaning to "ABUNDANT".
A. Scarce
B. Plentiful
C. Limited
D. Rare
E. Insufficient
Q52. Choose the antonym of "TRANSPARENT".
A. Clear
B. Visible
C. Obvious
D. Opaque
E. Open
Q53. Identify the correctly spelled word.
A. Entrepreneur
B. Entreprenuer
C. Enterpreneur
D. Entreprenur
E. Entreproneur
Q54. Fill in the blank:
The manager insisted ___ completing the report before the deadline.
A. at
B. in
C. on
D. for
E. by
Q55. Choose the grammatically correct sentence.
A. Neither the manager nor the employees was available.
B. Neither the manager nor the employees were available.
C. Neither the manager or the employees were available.
D. Neither manager nor employees is available.
E. Neither the manager nor employees has available.
Q56. Choose the correct improvement:
"Each of the employees have submitted their report."
A. Each of the employees has submitted his or her report.
B. Each of the employees have submitted his report.
C. Each employees has submitted their report.
D. Each of employees have submitted reports.
E. No improvement
Q57. The idiom "to hit the nail on the head" means:
A. To make a mistake
B. To describe something exactly or accurately
C. To work very slowly
D. To avoid a problem
E. To create confusion
Q58. Choose the correct passive voice:
"The company launched the new service."
A. The new service has launched the company.
B. The new service was launched by the company.
C. The company was launched by the service.
D. The new service is launching the company.
E. The new service had launch by company.
Q59. Choose the correct word:
The company wants to ___ its market presence.
A. loose
B. lose
C. strengthen
D. loss
E. losing
Q60. Choose the correct meaning of "prudent".
A. Careless
B. Wise and cautious
C. Aggressive
D. Uncertain
E. Impulsive
Part C: Reasoning
Questions 61–70
Q61. Find the next number:
2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
A. 36
B. 40
C. 42
D. 44
E. 48
Q62. Find the odd one out:
A. Apple
B. Mango
C. Banana
D. Carrot
E. Orange
Q63. If MARKET is coded as NBSLFU, how is PRICE coded using the same pattern?
A. QSJDF
B. QSHDF
C. QSJDG
D. PRJDF
E. QTKDF
Q64. A is the brother of B. B is the sister of C. C is the father of D. How is A related to D?
A. Father
B. Uncle
C. Brother
D. Grandfather
E. Cousin
Q65. If North is called East, East is called South, South is called West and West is called North, then in which direction will a person facing the actual North be considered to be facing?
A. North
B. South
C. East
D. West
E. Northeast
Q66. In a row of 40 students, Ravi is 12th from the left. What is his position from the right?
A. 27th
B. 28th
C. 29th
D. 30th
E. 31st
Q67. Statement: All containers are boxes. Some boxes are wooden.
Conclusion:
I. Some containers are wooden.
II. All containers are boxes.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Both follow
D. Neither follows
E. Either I or II follows
Q68. If 5 workers can complete a task in 12 days, how many workers are required to complete the same task in 4 days, assuming equal efficiency?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 15
D. 18
E. 20
Q69. Find the missing term:
AZ, BY, CX, DW, ?
A. EU
B. EV
C. FU
D. EW
E. FV
Q70. If all letters in the word LOGISTICS are arranged alphabetically, which letter will be third from the left?
A. G
B. I
C. L
D. O
E. S
Part D: Quantative Aptitude
Questions 71–85
Q71. A product priced at ₹2,000 is sold after a 15% discount. What is the selling price?
A. ₹1,600
B. ₹1,650
C. ₹1,700
D. ₹1,750
E. ₹1,800
Q72. A company's sales increase from ₹8 lakh to ₹10 lakh. The percentage increase is:
A. 20%
B. 22.5%
C. 25%
D. 27.5%
E. 30%
Q73. The ratio of marketing expenditure to logistics expenditure is 3:5. If total expenditure is ₹64 lakh, marketing expenditure is:
A. ₹20 lakh
B. ₹22 lakh
C. ₹24 lakh
D. ₹26 lakh
E. ₹28 lakh
Q74. A trader purchases an item for ₹800 and sells it for ₹920. Profit percentage is:
A. 10%
B. 12%
C. 15%
D. 18%
E. 20%
Q75. The average of 18, 24, 30, 36 and 42 is:
A. 28
B. 29
C. 30
D. 31
E. 32
Q76. A train travels 360 km in 6 hours. Its average speed is:
A. 50 km/h
B. 55 km/h
C. 60 km/h
D. 65 km/h
E. 70 km/h
Q77. A logistics vehicle travels at 72 km/h. How far will it travel in 25 minutes?
A. 24 km
B. 25 km
C. 28 km
D. 30 km
E. 32 km
Q78. If 12 workers complete a job in 15 days, how many days will 20 workers take, assuming equal efficiency?
A. 7 days
B. 8 days
C. 9 days
D. 10 days
E. 12 days
Q79. Simple interest on ₹20,000 at 8% per annum for 2 years is:
A. ₹2,800
B. ₹3,000
C. ₹3,200
D. ₹3,400
E. ₹3,600
Q80. A container has 40% of its capacity filled. If its total capacity is 2,500 units, how many units are filled?
A. 800
B. 900
C. 1,000
D. 1,100
E. 1,200
Q81. If x : y = 4 : 7 and y : z = 14 : 15, then x : z is:
A. 4:15
B. 8:15
C. 8:21
D. 14:15
E. 15:8
Q82. A company has fixed costs of ₹3,00,000 and contribution per unit of ₹50. Break-even quantity is:
A. 4,000 units
B. 5,000 units
C. 6,000 units
D. 7,000 units
E. 8,000 units
Q83. A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%. The net effect is:
A. No change
B. 2% increase
C. 4% decrease
D. 4% increase
E. 8% decrease
Q84. If 25% of a number is 75, the number is:
A. 200
B. 250
C. 275
D. 300
E. 325
Q85. The cost of transporting one container decreases from ₹50,000 to ₹45,000. The percentage decrease is:
A. 5%
B. 8%
C. 10%
D. 12%
E. 15%
Part E: General Knowledge
Questions 86–100
Q86. The headquarters of the Container Corporation of India (CONCOR) is located in:
A. Mumbai
B. New Delhi
C. Chennai
D. Kolkata
E. Hyderabad
Q87. CONCOR primarily operates in the field of:
A. Containerized logistics and multimodal transportation
B. Consumer banking
C. Telecommunications
D. Automobile manufacturing
E. Pharmaceutical retail
Q88. PM Gati Shakti is primarily associated with:
A. Multimodal infrastructure planning and connectivity
B. Rural healthcare only
C. Agricultural insurance only
D. School education
E. Pension reform
Q89. The National Logistics Policy primarily aims to:
A. Improve India's logistics efficiency and reduce logistics costs
B. Eliminate all private logistics companies
C. Reduce exports
D. Stop multimodal transport
E. Increase customs delays
Q90. The headquarters of the World Trade Organization is in:
A. Paris
B. Geneva
C. New York
D. London
E. Vienna
Q91. In August 2026, India's National Security Adviser Ajit Doval received which award?
A. Bharat Ratna
B. Lokmanya Tilak National Award 2026
C. Gandhi Peace Prize
D. Ramon Magsaysay Award
E. Indira Gandhi Prize
Q92. Who was appointed CEO of NITI Aayog in July 2026?
A. Anurag Jain
B. Rajiv Gauba
C. Amitabh Kant
D. Vineet Joshi
E. T. Srinivasa Kumar
Q93. India and Belgium agreed in September 2026 to strengthen cooperation in areas including trade, defence and:
A. Critical minerals and semiconductors
B. Only tourism
C. Only sports
D. Only agriculture
E. Only cinema
Q94. The 2026 SCO Summit was held in:
A. New Delhi, India
B. Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan
C. Beijing, China
D. Astana, Kazakhstan
E. Tashkent, Uzbekistan
Q95. India's first phase of digital self-enumeration for the 2026 Census was associated with which state beginning the process on 1 August 2026?
A. Gujarat
B. West Bengal
C. Maharashtra
D. Rajasthan
E. Bihar
Q96. India achieved approximately how much installed non-fossil fuel electricity generation capacity by July 31, 2026, according to reported government figures?
A. 150 GW
B. 200 GW
C. 250 GW
D. 300.50 GW
E. 450 GW
Q97. Which organization is responsible for India's national space programme?
A. DRDO
B. ISRO
C. CSIR
D. BARC
E. HAL
Q98. The International Day of Logistics is observed on:
A. 1 January
B. 10 March
C. 16 May
D. 25 September
E. 5 December
Q99. Which ministry is primarily responsible for India's railway transport?
A. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
B. Ministry of Railways
C. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
D. Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
E. Ministry of Heavy Industries
Q100. The main purpose of an Inland Container Depot is to:
A. Facilitate inland handling and processing of containerized cargo
B. Manufacture containers only
C. Sell consumer goods
D. Provide retail banking services
E. Produce railway locomotives
Answer Key
| Q | Ans | Q | Ans | Q | Ans | Q | Ans | Q | Ans |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | C | 21 | B | 41 | B | 61 | C | 81 | B |
| 2 | D | 22 | B | 42 | A | 62 | D | 82 | C |
| 3 | C | 23 | A | 43 | C | 63 | A | 83 | C |
| 4 | C | 24 | A | 44 | A | 64 | B | 84 | D |
| 5 | B | 25 | B | 45 | B | 65 | C | 85 | C |
| 6 | C | 26 | B | 46 | A | 66 | C | 86 | B |
| 7 | C | 27 | B | 47 | B | 67 | B | 87 | A |
| 8 | B | 28 | C | 48 | A | 68 | C | 88 | A |
| 9 | C | 29 | C | 49 | A | 69 | B | 89 | A |
| 10 | E | 30 | B | 50 | B | 70 | B | 90 | B |
| 11 | B | 31 | A | 51 | B | 71 | C | 91 | B |
| 12 | C | 32 | A | 52 | D | 72 | C | 92 | A |
| 13 | B | 33 | A | 53 | A | 73 | C | 93 | A |
| 14 | B | 34 | B | 54 | C | 74 | C | 94 | B |
| 15 | B | 35 | B | 55 | B | 75 | C | 95 | B |
| 16 | A | 36 | C | 56 | A | 76 | C | 96 | D |
| 17 | C | 37 | A | 57 | B | 77 | D | 97 | B |
| 18 | B | 38 | A | 58 | B | 78 | C | 98 | D |
| 19 | B | 39 | B | 59 | C | 79 | C | 99 | B |
| 20 | B | 40 | B | 60 | B | 80 | C | 100 | A |
Answer Explanation
Professional Knowledge
Q1 — C: Marketing starts with understanding customer needs and creating value profitably.
Q2 — D: Production concept emphasizes availability, efficiency and affordability.
Q3 — C: Designing a service around changing customer requirements reflects market orientation.
Q4 — C: Suppliers are part of the company's micro-environment.
Q5 — B: PESTLE examines macro factors such as political, economic, social, technological, legal and environmental forces.
Q6 — C: STP = Segmentation → Targeting → Positioning.
Q7 — C: Shipment volume represents customer behaviour/usage characteristics, making it behavioural segmentation.
Q8 — B: Choosing the customer segment to serve is targeting.
Q9 — C: Creating a specific perception in the customer's mind is positioning.
Q10 — E: People is part of the extended 7Ps, particularly for services.
Q11 — B: Core product represents the fundamental benefit purchased.
Q12 — C: Warranty and after-sales support are augmented benefits.
Q13 — B: Product mix width is the number of product lines.
Q14 — B: Adding lower-level/lower-priced products is downward stretching.
Q15 — B: PLC = Introduction → Growth → Maturity → Decline.
Q16 — A: Maturity commonly involves market modification, differentiation and competitive strategies.
Q17 — C: Idea generation begins the traditional NPD process.
Q18 — B: Idea screening eliminates ideas that are unsuitable or inconsistent with company objectives.
Q19 — B: Brand equity represents the value associated with the brand.
Q20 — B: Awareness is the ability to recognize or recall the brand.
Q21 — B: Brand extension uses an established brand name in a new product category.
Q22 — B: New variants within an existing category are line extensions.
Q23 — A: Co-branding uses two or more established brands together.
Q24 — A: Poor or excessive extensions can dilute the original brand meaning.
Q25 — B: Value-based pricing starts from customer-perceived value.
Q26 — B: Price skimming begins high and generally decreases over time.
Q27 — B: Penetration pricing uses a low introductory price to gain market share.
Q28 — C: Break-even = ₹2,00,000 ÷ ₹40 = 5,000 units.
Q29 — C: Personal selling involves direct salesperson-customer interaction.
Q30 — B: Coupons, contests and temporary discounts are sales promotion.
Q31 — A: AIDA = Attention → Interest → Desire → Action.
Q32 — A: Pull strategy stimulates final-customer demand.
Q33 — A: SEO improves organic visibility in search engines.
Q34 — B: Title tags and website content are on-page SEO elements.
Q35 — B: PPC = Pay Per Click.
Q36 — C: CTR = 400 ÷ 20,000 × 100 = 2%.
Q37 — A: CRM is focused on managing and strengthening customer relationships.
Q38 — A: CLV estimates the customer's potential economic value over the relationship.
Q39 — B: Cross-selling means offering complementary products/services.
Q40 — B: Up-selling means moving a customer toward a higher-value version.
Q41 — B: B2B demand often derives from demand for final products/services.
Q42 — A: Buying centre is the group involved in organizational purchasing.
Q43 — C: A gatekeeper controls access to information or decision-makers.
Q44 — A: Logistics manages movement, storage and related information flows.
Q45 — B: Transportation creates place utility.
Q46 — A: Warehousing helps make products available at the required time.
Q47 — B: SCM coordinates the wider network from suppliers to customers.
Q48 — A: Bullwhip effect involves amplified fluctuations upstream.
Q49 — A: ICDs support inland handling and processing of containerized cargo.
Q50 — B: In B2B logistics, reliability, connectivity, visibility and support together create stronger customer value.
English Language
Q51 — B: Abundant means plentiful.
Q52 — D: Transparent means clear/open; its opposite is opaque.
Q53 — A: Entrepreneur is the correct spelling.
Q54 — C: The correct phrase is "insisted on."
Q55 — B: With "neither...nor," the verb generally agrees with the nearer subject; "employees" is plural.
Q56 — A: "Each" is singular, so "has" is required.
Q57 — B: To hit the nail on the head means to identify or describe something exactly.
Q58 — B: The passive construction is "The new service was launched by the company."
Q59 — C: "Strengthen" correctly fits the sentence.
Q60 — B: Prudent means wise, careful and cautious.
Reasoning
Q61 — C: Differences are +4, +6, +8, +10, so next is +12. Answer = 42.
Q62 — D: Carrot is a vegetable; the others are fruits.
Q63 — A: Each letter is shifted one position forward: PRICE → QSJDF.
Q64 — B: A is B's brother; B is C's sister; C is D's father. Therefore A is D's uncle.
Q65 — C: Under the given renaming system, actual North is called East.
Q66 — C: Position from right = 40 − 12 + 1 = 29th.
Q67 — B: "All containers are boxes" directly follows. The statement does not establish that any container is wooden.
Q68 — C: Total work = 5 × 12 = 60 worker-days. 60 ÷ 4 = 15 workers.
Q69 — B: First letters move A, B, C, D, E; second letters move Z, Y, X, W, V. Answer = EV.
Q70 — B: LOGISTICS alphabetically begins G, I, L, O, S, T... Third letter = L.
Quantitative Aptitude
Q71 — C: Discount = 15% of ₹2,000 = ₹300. Selling price = ₹1,700.
Q72 — C: Increase = ₹2 lakh. Percentage = 2/8 × 100 = 25%.
Q73 — C: Total parts = 8. Marketing = 3/8 × 64 = ₹24 lakh.
Q74 — C: Profit = ₹120. Profit% = 120/800 × 100 = 15%.
Q75 — C: Sum = 150. Average = 150/5 = 30.
Q76 — C: Speed = 360/6 = 60 km/h.
Q77 — D: 25 minutes = 25/60 hour. Distance = 72 × 25/60 = 30 km.
Q78 — C: Total work = 12 × 15 = 180 worker-days. 180/20 = 9 days.
Q79 — C: SI = PRT/100 = 20,000 × 8 × 2 /100 = ₹3,200.
Q80 — C: 40% of 2,500 = 1,000 units.
Q81 — B: x:y = 4:7 and y:z = 14:15. Making y common gives x:y = 8:14, hence x:z = 8:15.
Q82 — C: BEP = ₹3,00,000 ÷ ₹50 = 6,000 units.
Q83 — C: Assume 100. After 20% increase = 120. 20% decrease = 96. Net decrease = 4%.
Q84 — D: 25% = 75, so 100% = 75 × 4 = 300.
Q85 — C: Reduction = ₹5,000. Percentage = 5,000/50,000 × 100 = 10%.
General Knowledge
Q86 — B: CONCOR's corporate headquarters are in New Delhi.
Q87 — A: CONCOR is principally engaged in containerized logistics and multimodal transportation.
Q88 — A: PM Gati Shakti focuses on integrated multimodal infrastructure planning and connectivity.
Q89 — A: National Logistics Policy aims to improve logistics efficiency and reduce logistics costs.
Q90 — B: WTO headquarters are located in Geneva, Switzerland.
Q91 — B: NSA Ajit Doval received the Lokmanya Tilak National Award 2026 in August 2026.
Q92 — A: Anurag Jain was appointed CEO of NITI Aayog in July 2026.
Q93 — A: India and Belgium agreed to deepen cooperation including trade, defence, clean energy, critical minerals and semiconductors in September 2026.
Q94 — B: The 2026 SCO Summit was held in Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan, on 31 August–1 September 2026.
Q95 — B: West Bengal began its digital self-enumeration phase on 1 August 2026 as part of the 2026 Census process.
Q96 — D: India had reached about 300.50 GW of installed non-fossil fuel capacity as of July 31, 2026.
Q97 — B: ISRO is India's national space agency.
Q98 — D: The question's intended answer is 25 September.
Q99 — B: The Ministry of Railways is responsible for India's railway transport system.
Q100 — A: ICDs facilitate inland handling and processing of containerized cargo and related logistics/customs processes.
Score Card
Calculate your score using: Score = Correct − (Wrong × 0.25)
| Score | Level |
|---|---|
| 85–100 | Excellent — Very strong |
| 75–84.75 | Excellent — Exam ready with revision |
| 65–74.75 | Very Good — Good preparation |
| 55–64.75 | Good — Several areas need revision |
| 45–54.75 | Average — More practice required |
| Below 45 | Needs serious revision |
Section-wise Target
| Section | Target |
|---|---|
| Professional Knowledge | 40+/50 |
| English | 7+/10 |
| Reasoning | 7+/10 |
| Quantitative Aptitude | 10+/15 |
| General Knowledge | 9+/15 |
| Overall | 73+/100 |
CONCOR Mock Series
Practice Set 1: Marketing Fundamentals & Marketing Mix
Practice Set 2: STP, Consumer Behaviour & Market Research
Practice Set 3: Product Management, Branding & Pricing
Practice Set 4: Promotion, Digital Marketing & CRM
Practice Set 5: B2B Marketing, Logistics & Supply Chain